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I am reading Micheal Searcoid's book: "Elements of Abstract Analysis" ... ...
I am currently focused on understanding Chapter 1: Sets ... and in particular Section 1.4 Ordinals ...
I have another question regarding the proof of Theorem 1.4.4 ...
Theorem 1.4.4 reads as follows:
View attachment 8463
In the above proof by Searcoid we read the following:
"... ... Moreover, since $$x \subset \alpha$$, we have $$\delta \in \alpha$$. But $$\beta \in \alpha$$ and $$\alpha$$ is totally ordered, so we must have $$\delta \in \beta$$ or $$\delta = \beta$$ or $$\beta \in \delta$$ ... ... "My question is regarding the three alternatives $$\delta \in \beta$$ or $$\delta = \beta$$ or $$\beta \in \delta$$ ... ...Now ... where $$(S, <)$$ is a partially ordered set ... $$S$$ is said to be totally ordered by $$<$$ if and only if for every pair of distinct members $$x, y \in S$$, either $$x < y$$ or $$y < x$$ ... ..So if we follow the definition exactly in the quote above there are only two alternatives ... $$\delta \in \beta$$ or $$\beta \in \delta$$ ... ...My question is ... where does the $$=$$ alternative come from ... ?
How does the $$=$$ alternative follow from the definition of totally ordered ... ?Help will be appreciated ...
Peter
I am currently focused on understanding Chapter 1: Sets ... and in particular Section 1.4 Ordinals ...
I have another question regarding the proof of Theorem 1.4.4 ...
Theorem 1.4.4 reads as follows:
View attachment 8463
In the above proof by Searcoid we read the following:
"... ... Moreover, since $$x \subset \alpha$$, we have $$\delta \in \alpha$$. But $$\beta \in \alpha$$ and $$\alpha$$ is totally ordered, so we must have $$\delta \in \beta$$ or $$\delta = \beta$$ or $$\beta \in \delta$$ ... ... "My question is regarding the three alternatives $$\delta \in \beta$$ or $$\delta = \beta$$ or $$\beta \in \delta$$ ... ...Now ... where $$(S, <)$$ is a partially ordered set ... $$S$$ is said to be totally ordered by $$<$$ if and only if for every pair of distinct members $$x, y \in S$$, either $$x < y$$ or $$y < x$$ ... ..So if we follow the definition exactly in the quote above there are only two alternatives ... $$\delta \in \beta$$ or $$\beta \in \delta$$ ... ...My question is ... where does the $$=$$ alternative come from ... ?
How does the $$=$$ alternative follow from the definition of totally ordered ... ?Help will be appreciated ...
Peter