Understanding the Cyclic Property of Groups

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If the order of an element g in a group G is equal to the order of G, then G is cyclic. This is because the subgroup generated by g, denoted as ⟨g⟩, must contain all elements of G, making them all powers of g. In finite groups, if |g| = |G|, it implies that there cannot be any elements in G that are not powers of g. However, this property does not hold for infinite groups, as demonstrated by the example of the additive group of rational numbers, where the subgroup generated by 1 is the integers, showing that G is not cyclic despite both having the same cardinality. Understanding this distinction is crucial in group theory.
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Homework Statement


My online notes stated that it |g| = |G| where g is an element of G then |G| is cyclic.

Can somebody help me understand why this is true?
 
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I assume ##|g|## means the order of ##\langle g \rangle##, the subgroup generated by ##g##.

Note that ##\langle g \rangle \subseteq G##.

If ##|G|## is finite and ##|g| = |G|##, then ##\langle g \rangle \subseteq G## implies ##\langle g \rangle = G##. (Do you see why?) What can you conclude?

By the way, the result need not be true if ##|G|## is infinite. For a counterexample, let ##G = \mathbb{Q}##, the additive group of rational numbers, and let ##g = 1##. Then ##\langle g \rangle = \mathbb{Z}##, the additive subgroup of integers. Then ##G## and ##\langle g \rangle## have the same cardinality (countably infinite) but ##G## is not cyclic.
 
PsychonautQQ said:

Homework Statement


My online notes stated that it |g| = |G| where g is an element of G then |G| is cyclic.

Can somebody help me understand why this is true?

If |g| = |G| is finite, can there exist any elements of G which are not powers of g?
 
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No. If |g|= |G| then, by definition of "| |", g and G contain the same number of terms. Since <g> is always a subgroup of G, it follows that g is exactly the same as G. Since every member of <g> is a power of g, every member of G is a power of g.
 
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thanks yall :D
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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