Understanding the Proof of x mod pq = y mod pq for Distinct Primes p and q

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof related to modular arithmetic, specifically showing that if two numbers are congruent modulo two distinct prime numbers, they are also congruent modulo the product of those primes.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand a proof involving modular arithmetic and the notation used, particularly the meaning of divisibility and the role of the least common multiple (LCM).
  • Some participants clarify the notation and its implications, while others express confusion about the necessity of LCM in the proof.
  • There is a question raised about alternative methods to prove the statement without referencing LCM.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing clarifications and exploring different aspects of the proof. Some guidance has been offered regarding the relationship between LCM and the product of the primes, but multiple interpretations and questions remain open.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the implications of modular arithmetic and divisibility, with specific focus on the properties of distinct primes and their relationship to LCM.

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Homework Statement



Show that given x mod p = y mod p and x mod q = y mod q, the following is true:
x mod pq = y mod pq.
p and q are distinct primes.


The Attempt at a Solution


Here is the proof from someone that I am trying to understand:

In general, x≡y (mod p) and x≡y (mod q) ⇒ x≡y (mod LCM(p,q)).
Proof. x≡y (mod p) and x≡y (mod q) implies p|x-y and q|x-y
implies LCM(p,q)|x-y, which means x≡y (mod LCM(p,q)). (Q.E.D.)
So, if p and q are different primes, x≡y (mod p) and x≡y (mod q) yield
x≡y (mod pq).


I do not understand the proof. Primarily what does p|x-y mean? or any notation with |. Also, how does the LCM(p,q) come into this?
 
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a|b means a devides b, which means that there exists an integer number n so that b = a*n
 
Oh ok. That makes more sense. I still don't understand how the LCM comes in but it's starting to come together some more. Thanks!
 
You're welcome. It's weird actually they brought the LCM up, because if p and q are primes, then LCM(p,q)=p*q
Hope that helps
 
Is there another way to prove this without LCM?
 
don't worry about the LCM. If p and q are primes, then LCM(p,q) = p*q, so it's the same thing!
 

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