Uniform Continuity and Supremum

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renjean
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thanks!
 
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renjean said:

Homework Statement




Homework Equations



Give an example of a function f that is uniformly continuous on [-1,1] such that
sup{ [f(x)-f(y) / [x-y] } = infinity

The Attempt at a Solution



I have tried to come up with functions for hours but I am just not getting it. Any help would be appreciated.

What kinds of functions have you tried and why do you think they aren't working?
 
Does x*sin(1/x) work since its derivative is undefined at x=0 which is in [-1,1]?
 
I thought that any continuous function on a closed and bounded interval is also uniformly continuous. And in the case of x*sin(1/x) the derivative appears to go to infinity at x=0.
 
chairbear said:
I thought that any continuous function on a closed and bounded interval is also uniformly continuous.

Correct.

And in the case of x*sin(1/x) the derivative appears to go to infinity at x=0.

Not really. Rather, the derivative does not exist (since it oscillates too much). Nevertheless the supremum you mention does indeed go to infinity. (you might want to give a further proof if it is not clear)
 
I feel silly for making things more complicated than necessary. What was the easier example you had in mind? I was thinking square root x would work if the interval was [0,1].
 
chairbear said:
I feel silly for making things more complicated than necessary. What was the easier example you had in mind? I was thinking square root x would work if the interval was [0,1].

Don't feel silly. Your example is very elegant.

The square root is indeed the one I had in mind. You just need to modify it a bit.
 
So it would just be sqrt(x+1) for the [-1,1] interval as another solution?
 
thanks
 
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chairbear said:
Thank you for your help. I was wondering if you could help me to get started on another question I have.

I have to prove that for a function f with f'(0)=0, there's a sequence xn that converges to 0 for all n such that f'(xn) converges to 0. and xn can't = 0 for any n.

I'm not sure exactly how to get started on this, because I'm not sure if it's supposed to be a rigorous proof, or if I'm just supposed to come up with a sequence that satisfies the conditions for some f.

It's not even true. There are functions that differentiable at x=0, that aren't even differentiable anywhere else.
 
Sorry, there's a condition also that f: R-->R and must be differentiable on R