Understanding the Proof for Uniform Continuity on Compact Intervals

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I would appreciate it if someone could explain the steps in the reasoning of the following statement. This is not a homework assignment or anything.

Let ##U \subseteq R^{n}## be compact and ##f:U\to R## a continuous function on ##U##. However f is not uniformly continuous.
Then there exists an ##\epsilon>0## and sequences ##a_n## and ##b_n## such that if ## || a_n - b_n || < \frac{1}{n} ## then ##||f(a_n) - f(b_n) \ge \epsilon##.

This statement will lead to proof that continuity on a compact interval means uniform continuity. However this is not proven yet so don't use that fact in your reasoning. Purely based on the definitions of uniform continuity.
 
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So try to prove that any function ##f:U\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m## (for any domain ##U##) is uniform continuous if and only if for each two sequences ##(a_n)_n## and ##(b_n)_n## in ##U## holds that if ##\| a_n - b_n\|\rightarrow 0## then ##\|f(a_n) - f(b_n)\|\rightarrow 0##.
 
Pick a random ##\epsilon>0##. And let ##a_n## and ##b_n## be two sequences in ##U## so that ##||a_n - b_n||## converges.

Uniform continuity implies there exists a ##\delta## so that as long ##||a_n - b_n|| < \delta ## it follows that ##||f(a_n)-f(b_n)||< \epsilon##

Since ##||a_n - b_n||## converges I can always find a certain ##N## so that for ##n \ge N## holds that ##||a_n - b_n|| < \delta ##

So to summarize, I receive an ##\epsilon## , which in turn returns a unique ##\delta##, and I can always find an ##N## so that for ##n \ge N## : ##||f(a_n)-f(b_n)||< \epsilon## which proves it one way.
 
That's correct.
 
Suggestions for the other direction of proof? It looks like it's a harder one. By the way I totally get the statement now.
 
Use contradiction. Assume that ##f## is not uniform continuous and use that to construct sequences ##(a_n)_n## and ##(b_n)_n##.
 
Hello, I don't think this is worth posting another thread so I hope it's alright if I just ask here.

A similar problem to the last discussed matter. I need to show that these two statements are equivalent (note it's not about uniform continuity anymore though!)

1) ##f:U->V## is continuous on some open domain ##D##

2) For any sequence where ##x_n## converges to ##x## on ##D## , the sequence ##f(x_n)## converges to ##f(x)## on ##V##.

I tried for a bit with assuming that ##f## is not continuous like you mentioned for the previous problem but don't get far.
 
i think you can do this alone. the easy direction is 1 implies 2, assuming you are using the epsilon delta definition of continuity.
 
Yeah 1 implies 2 was no problem its the other way.
 
  • #10
To pass from arbitrary e>0 to a sequence, one usually uses the fact that 1/n --> 0.
 
  • #11
I think you need 1st countability of the space to go from 2 to 1, or you need something like the space being a sequential space. I mean, this is not true of all spaces.
 
  • #12
WWGD said:
I think you need 1st countability of the space to go from 2 to 1, or you need something like the space being a sequential space. I mean, this is not true of all spaces.

We are working in ##\mathbb{R}^n##...
 
  • #13
OK, sorry, I did not see that. Feel free to delete my previous post if that helps PF.
 
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