pivoxa15
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If f is uniformly continuous then does that mean f^-1 its inverse is also?
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The discussion revolves around the properties of uniform continuity, specifically whether the inverse of a uniformly continuous function retains the same property. Participants explore examples and counterexamples to illustrate their points.
The discussion is active, with participants providing examples and counterexamples. There is an exploration of different interpretations of uniform continuity, particularly in relation to bounded derivatives and the implications of domain restrictions. Some participants express uncertainty about definitions and the conditions for uniform continuity.
There is a focus on the behavior of functions on specific intervals, with some participants suggesting that the domain can be restricted to avoid issues with continuity. The discussion includes references to compact sets and the Heine-Cantor theorem, indicating a deeper exploration of the topic.
StatusX said:Do you mean uniformly continuous? Then no, even if f is invertible. For example, take f=x^3, which is uniformly continuous, but whose inverse, x^1/3, has infinite slope at x=0, and so isn't uniformly continuous.
StatusX said:Ok, fine, take it on the interval [-1,1], or redefine it outside a region like this so the slope doesn't blow up. You should notice that the problem comes from the origin, so changing it's behavior far away from this point won't help anything.
pivoxa15 said:Why is the problem at the origin?
Dick said:x^(1/3) on [0,1] IS uniformly continuous. It just doesn't have a bounded derivative.
Dick said:It's still uniformly continuous on [0,1). Where did you find a rule that says delta has to be smaller than the distance to the end of your domain?