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No, it sums up to 1/(1+x^{2}).
No, j alternates being even and odd.Mathman23 said:Hi
Then
[itex]\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}(-1)^{j}x^{2j} = x^{2} + x^{4} + x^{6} + x^{8}[/itex]
Because j is even.
/Fred
Mathman23 said:Hi
Then
[itex]\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}(-1)^{j}x^{2j} = x^{2} + x^{4} + x^{6} + x^{8}[/itex]
Because j is even.
/Fred
Thenarildno said:No, it sums up to 1/(1+x^{2}).
Thenarildno said:No, it sums up to 1/(1+x^{2}).
Thenarildno said:No. You MUST learn to read properly and stop writing sloppy and nonsensical maths.
We have:
[tex](-1)^{n}x^{2n}\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}=\frac{(-1)^{n}x^{2n}}{1+x^{2}}[/tex]
arildno said:We have:
[tex](-1)^{n}x^{2n}\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}=\frac{(-1)^{n}x^{2n}}{1+x^{2}}[/tex]
You're right, it doesn't I'll fix it right away.assyrian_77 said:Sorry arildno, but that doesn't make sense.