Using the generalized triangle inequality

In summary, we need to prove |d(x,y) - d(z,w)| ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w) using the generalized triangle inequality and two cases: a) d(x,y) - d(z,w) ≥ 0 and b) d(x,y) - d(z,w) < 0. By adding d(z,w) to both sides of the original equation, we can use the triangle inequality to show that d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w) + d(z,w). This leads to the conclusion that |d(x,y) - d(z,w)| ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w). It is important to note that in writing the proof, we must reverse the
  • #1
scharl4
6
0

Homework Statement


Using the generalized triangle inequality, prove |d(x,y) - d(z,w)| ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w)



Homework Equations


d(x,y) is a metric
triangle inequality: d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(z,y)

The Attempt at a Solution


I know that this needs to be proved with cases: a) d(x,y) - d(z,w) ≥ 0, and b) d(x,y) - d(z,w) < 0. I know that for case a), we have |d(x,y) - d(z,w)| = d(x,y) - d(z,w). The part I am stuck at is that by applying the generalized triangle inequality to this expression, we are supposed to get d(x,y) - d(z,w) ≤ d(x,z) + d(w,y). I just do not understand why. Can anyone help please?
 
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  • #2
scharl4 said:
I know that this needs to be proved with cases: a) d(x,y) - d(z,w) ≥ 0, and b) d(x,y) - d(z,w) < 0.

Why would this prove anything?? Why do you even think (a) and (b) are true?
 
  • #3
OK, I used the two cases a) d(x,y) - d(z,w) ≥ 0 and b) d(x,y) - d(z,w) < 0 because of the absolute value in the problem. So for case a) i need to prove d(x,y) - d(z,w) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w) and for case b) i need to prove d(z,w) - d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w)
 
  • #4
scharl4 said:
OK, I used the two cases a) d(x,y) - d(z,w) ≥ 0 and b) d(x,y) - d(z,w) < 0 because of the absolute value in the problem. So for case a) i need to prove d(x,y) - d(z,w) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w) and for case b) i need to prove d(z,w) - d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w)

OK, that makes sense.

So you need to prove d(x,y)-d(z,w) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w). What happens if you add d(z,w) to both sides?
 
  • #5
Ok, so then adding d(z,w) to both sides gives d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w) + d(z,w), so d(x,z) + d(z,w) + d(y,w) ≥ d(x,w) + d(w,y) by the triangle inequality, and d(x,w) + d(w,y) ≥ d(x,y) by the triangle inequality, so d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w) + d(z,w). Thanks so much, now I understand where this is coming from!
 
  • #6
scharl4 said:
Ok, so then adding d(z,w) to both sides gives d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w) + d(z,w), so d(x,z) + d(z,w) + d(y,w) ≥ d(x,w) + d(w,y) by the triangle inequality, and d(x,w) + d(w,y) ≥ d(x,y) by the triangle inequality, so d(x,y) ≤ d(x,z) + d(y,w) + d(z,w). Thanks so much, now I understand where this is coming from!

Note: if you actually write up the proof then you have to reverse it. You can't write: from [itex]d(x,y)-d(z,w) \leq d(x,z) + d(y,w)[/itex] follows [itex]d(x,y)\leq d(x,z)+d(y,w)+d(w,z)[/itex]. This is true, but it isn't helpful since you started with what you wanted to proof.

What you have to do is write: from [itex]d(x,y)\leq d(x,z)+d(y,w)+d(w,z)[/itex] follows [itex]d(x,y)-d(z,w) \leq d(x,z) + d(y,w)[/itex].
 

1. How does the generalized triangle inequality differ from the regular triangle inequality?

The generalized triangle inequality takes into account more than just the sum of two sides, as it allows for the use of any positive real numbers. This means that it is a more flexible and applicable rule for determining the relationship between three sides of a triangle.

2. Can the generalized triangle inequality be used for non-triangular shapes?

No, the generalized triangle inequality is specifically designed for triangles and cannot be applied to other shapes. This is because triangles have unique properties that allow for the use of this inequality.

3. How is the generalized triangle inequality useful in geometry and mathematics?

The generalized triangle inequality is a fundamental rule in geometry and mathematics, as it helps in proving theorems and solving problems involving triangles. It also has applications in other areas such as optimization and graph theory.

4. Is the generalized triangle inequality always true?

Yes, the generalized triangle inequality is always true for any triangle. This is because it is based on the properties of triangles and the concept of distance, which are constant and reliable.

5. Can the generalized triangle inequality be extended to higher dimensions?

Yes, the generalized triangle inequality can be extended to higher dimensions, such as in the case of polytopes. However, the concept and formula may differ from the traditional triangle inequality as it takes into account more dimensions.

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