Can <UX, UX> be written (UX)H(UX)? - A Closer Look

[jumbogala]

Homework Statement

Is it true that <UX, UX> can be written (UX)^H(UX)?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

I think it is because <UX, UX> is equivalent to the dot product in the real case. The above would work (where H is T) if the situation was real.

It just doesn't actually say this anywhere in my notes or book, so I want to make sure I can use this fact. Thanks!

 

[Fredrik]

What is your definition of <x,y>? (If it's an arbitrary inner product, then the statement isn't true. If it's a specific inner product, just use its definition to check if the statement is true).

 

[Dick]

This is a spin off from https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?p=2646031&posted=1#post2646031 So, yes, that's the inner product jumbogala is talking about.