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Hakkinen
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First of all I'm not sure if this is the right forum for this problem.
Given that [itex]\overline{F}[/itex]=m[itex]\overline{a}[/itex] is valid in the lab frame S, show that:
(a) it is also valid in a moving frame S' with a constant velocity relative to S,
but (b) invalid in a moving frame with a changing velocity (ie, a frame S' accelerating relative to S).
Assume the force and mass are invariant
The Galilean transformation.
Newtons 2nd law
This is a non-required problem in the first homework set for an applied modern physics (sophomore level) course I'm taking. We have only had one lecture and I don't have the textbook so I'm not sure if the conclusions I've drawn are correct
So we have two reference frames S and S', with respective coordinates (x,y,z,t) and (x',y',z',t'). But we can use just (x,t) and (x',t') and draw the same conclusions. S' is moving relative to S with a constant velocity [itex]\overline{v}[/itex] in part (a) and with an acceleration [itex]\overline{κ}[/itex] in part (b). I believe t=t' must also be assumed as the concept of absolute time still exists in Newtonian mechanics.
For part (a)
In S
[itex]\overline{F}[/itex]=m(d2x/dt2)=m(d[itex]\overline{u}[/itex]/dt) (Where [itex]\overline{u}[/itex] is the velocity measured in S)
The Galilean transformation gives this relationship between [itex]\overline{u}[/itex] and [itex]\overline{u'}[/itex] (velocity as measured in S')
[itex]\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{v}[/itex]
In S'
[itex]\overline{F}[/itex]=m(d([itex]\overline{u'}+\overline{v}/dt[/itex])
if [itex]\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{v}[/itex] then [itex]\overline{a'}[/itex]= ([itex]d(\overline{u'}+\overline{v})[/itex]/dt)) should equal the same acceleration [itex]\overline{a}[/itex] measured in S. Thus if the force and mass are invariant as well, the 2nd law holds for a moving reference frame with some constant velocity [itex]\overline{v}[/itex].
For part (b) when S' is accelerating relative to S
Similarly in S
[itex]\overline{F}[/itex]=m(d2x/dt2)=m(d[itex]\overline{u}[/itex]/dt)
##\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{κ}##
##\overline{F}=m(d(\overline{u'}+\overline{κ})/dt)##
Thus ##\overline{F}=m\overline{a'}+m(d\overline{κ}/dt)## where ##(d\overline{κ}/dt)## is the jerk of ##\overline{κ}##
I believe this shows that the 2nd Law is not valid for an accelerating reference frame.
I would greatly appreciate any corrections and comments you can provide!
Homework Statement
Given that [itex]\overline{F}[/itex]=m[itex]\overline{a}[/itex] is valid in the lab frame S, show that:
(a) it is also valid in a moving frame S' with a constant velocity relative to S,
but (b) invalid in a moving frame with a changing velocity (ie, a frame S' accelerating relative to S).
Assume the force and mass are invariant
Homework Equations
The Galilean transformation.
Newtons 2nd law
The Attempt at a Solution
This is a non-required problem in the first homework set for an applied modern physics (sophomore level) course I'm taking. We have only had one lecture and I don't have the textbook so I'm not sure if the conclusions I've drawn are correct
So we have two reference frames S and S', with respective coordinates (x,y,z,t) and (x',y',z',t'). But we can use just (x,t) and (x',t') and draw the same conclusions. S' is moving relative to S with a constant velocity [itex]\overline{v}[/itex] in part (a) and with an acceleration [itex]\overline{κ}[/itex] in part (b). I believe t=t' must also be assumed as the concept of absolute time still exists in Newtonian mechanics.
For part (a)
In S
[itex]\overline{F}[/itex]=m(d2x/dt2)=m(d[itex]\overline{u}[/itex]/dt) (Where [itex]\overline{u}[/itex] is the velocity measured in S)
The Galilean transformation gives this relationship between [itex]\overline{u}[/itex] and [itex]\overline{u'}[/itex] (velocity as measured in S')
[itex]\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{v}[/itex]
In S'
[itex]\overline{F}[/itex]=m(d([itex]\overline{u'}+\overline{v}/dt[/itex])
if [itex]\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{v}[/itex] then [itex]\overline{a'}[/itex]= ([itex]d(\overline{u'}+\overline{v})[/itex]/dt)) should equal the same acceleration [itex]\overline{a}[/itex] measured in S. Thus if the force and mass are invariant as well, the 2nd law holds for a moving reference frame with some constant velocity [itex]\overline{v}[/itex].
For part (b) when S' is accelerating relative to S
Similarly in S
[itex]\overline{F}[/itex]=m(d2x/dt2)=m(d[itex]\overline{u}[/itex]/dt)
##\overline{u}=\overline{u'}+\overline{κ}##
##\overline{F}=m(d(\overline{u'}+\overline{κ})/dt)##
Thus ##\overline{F}=m\overline{a'}+m(d\overline{κ}/dt)## where ##(d\overline{κ}/dt)## is the jerk of ##\overline{κ}##
I believe this shows that the 2nd Law is not valid for an accelerating reference frame.
I would greatly appreciate any corrections and comments you can provide!