MHB Vanessa 's question at Yahoo Answers ( R^2-{(0,0)} homeomorphic to S^1 x R )

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The discussion addresses the question of whether ℝ² - {(0,0)} is homeomorphic to S¹ x ℝ. It explains that ℝ² - {(0,0)} can be represented as a disjoint union of circles, which leads to the conclusion that it is homeomorphic to S¹ x (0,+∞). Additionally, since (0,+∞) is homeomorphic to ℝ, this establishes the desired homeomorphism. The response encourages further questions to be posted on a dedicated math help forum. The explanation effectively clarifies the relationship between the two topological spaces.
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Hello Vanessa,

We can express $\mathbb R^2 \setminus \{(0,0)\}$ as disjoint union of circles: $$\mathbb R^2 \setminus \{(0,0)\}=\displaystyle\bigcup_{r\in (0,+\infty)}C_r\;,\qquad C_r=\{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2:x^2+y^2=r^2\}$$ This is equivalent to say that $\mathbb R^2 \setminus \{(0,0)\}$ is homeomorphic to $S^1 \times (0,+\infty)$. Now, use that $(0,+\infty)$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$.

If you have further questions, you can post them in the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/f13/ section.
 
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