Vanishing Integral: When Does it Disappear?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the conditions under which a specific integral vanishes, as presented in a physics homework problem. The integral in question is related to the parity of certain variables, denoted as n'_y and n_y, and their implications on the integral's value.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between the parity of n'_y and n_y, questioning whether the integral always vanishes or under specific conditions. There are attempts to clarify the implications of the anti-derivative of cosine and the role of additional factors in the integral.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various interpretations of the integral's behavior, with some participants suggesting that it always equals zero, while others provide reasoning for when it does not. Guidance has been offered regarding integration techniques and the significance of parity in determining the integral's value.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential misunderstandings regarding the integral's limits and the effects of specific terms, such as the presence of y/2. There is an ongoing examination of the assumptions related to the parity of n_y and n'_y.

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[SOLVED] Vanishing Integral

Homework Statement


http://mikef.org/files/phys_4242_hw5.pdf
When does the integeral at the bottom of page 2 vanish? He says it vanishes when n'_y and n'_y have oppositive parity, but I think it always vanishes because n'_y - n'_y and n'_y + n'_y always have the same parity, so the integral over

cos(pi (n'_y - n'_y) y) and cos(pi (n'_y + n'_y) y)

should be the same.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 
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The anti-derivative of cos is sin, which is 0 at any multiple of \pi. At the upper limit, the b in the denominator is canceled by the upper limit b, leaving an integeer multiple of \pi. Of course, at the lower limit, 0, sin(0)= 0.
 
Notice there is a y/2 in front. Could you explain what your answer means for the result of the integral? It IS always 0, correct? So, the last sentence is wrong?
 
You are right, I missed the y/2 completely! Okay, do an "integration by parts". Let u= y and dv= (cos(py)- cos(q))dy. Then du= dy, v= -(sin(py)/p+ sin(qy)/q).

The integeral is "uv\left|_0^b- \int_0^b vdu[/tex]&quot; . As before The first term will be 0 at both y= 0 and y= b. Now the problem is just<br /> \int_0^v sin(py)/p+ sin(qy)/q)dy= -cos(py)/p^2- cos(qy)/q^2<br /> evaluated between 0 and b. Now, if n_y and n_y&amp;#039; differ by an even number[/b] (i.e. are either both even or both odd) those reduce to cosine at 0 and an <b>even</b> multiple of \pi and so the difference is 0. That is the reason for the condition &quot;unless n_y&amp;#039; = n_y+ an odd positive integer&quot;.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
I think it should be

\int_0^v sin(py)/p- sin(qy)/q)dy= -cos(py)/p^2+ cos(qy)/q^2

but now I see why it is 0 unless n_y and n'_y have opposite parity. Thanks.
 

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