- #1
boboYO
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I was doing some reading and I came across this:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_variation_distance_of_probability_measures
So apparently for the finite case,
[tex]\max_{x} ( \left| P(x) - Q(x) \right|)\quad \mbox{ is equivalent to}\quad \frac{1}{2} \sum_x {\left| P(x)-Q(x)\right|}[/tex]
but isn't this is a counterexample?
sum(|P-Q|)/2= 0.2
max(|P-Q|)=0.15
So I was thinking, maybe they meant 'equivalent' in a different sense? Could somebody please explain?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_variation_distance_of_probability_measures
So apparently for the finite case,
[tex]\max_{x} ( \left| P(x) - Q(x) \right|)\quad \mbox{ is equivalent to}\quad \frac{1}{2} \sum_x {\left| P(x)-Q(x)\right|}[/tex]
but isn't this is a counterexample?
Code:
x 1 2 3 4
P(x) 0.25 0.25 0.25 0.25
Q(x) 0.10 0.20 0.35 0.35
|P-Q| 0.15 0.05 0.10 0.10
sum(|P-Q|)/2= 0.2
max(|P-Q|)=0.15
So I was thinking, maybe they meant 'equivalent' in a different sense? Could somebody please explain?