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This isn't homework. I was browsing through my old James Stewart multivariable calc textbook and am having a mental block concering an aspect of the "proof", shown in the file attachment, below. I've highlighted the portion giving me trouble.

My confusion concerns how the first integral (the line integral for C1) can be regarded as independent of x. The integral isn't independent of

Thanks in advance...

Sorry - the file attachment was hard to read - here is a link instead...

http://home.comcast.net/~ut1880h/Files/stewart_theorem.jpg" [Broken]

jf

My confusion concerns how the first integral (the line integral for C1) can be regarded as independent of x. The integral isn't independent of

**r**which I assume would be dependent on both x and y.Thanks in advance...

Sorry - the file attachment was hard to read - here is a link instead...

http://home.comcast.net/~ut1880h/Files/stewart_theorem.jpg" [Broken]

jf

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