Vector potential of an infinitely long cylinder

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the vector potential of an infinitely long cylinder, highlighting the mathematical relationships between the vector potential \( \vec{A} \) and the magnetic field \( \vec{B} \). The key equations presented include \( \vec{A}(x) = \int \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\vec{J}(x')}{|x-x'|} \, d^3 x' \) and the derived forms for \( \vec{B} \) in cylindrical coordinates. The conversation emphasizes the need for careful integration paths and the application of Stokes' theorem to ensure consistency in calculations. Corrections to initial equations were also discussed, confirming the continuity of the magnetic field across the cylinder's boundary.

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  • Understanding of vector calculus, specifically Stokes' theorem
  • Familiarity with cylindrical coordinates and their applications in electromagnetism
  • Knowledge of the Biot-Savart law for calculating magnetic fields
  • Basic concepts of vector potential in electromagnetism
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  • Study the application of Stokes' theorem in electromagnetism
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Somali_Physicist
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I have seen the other threads on an infinitely long wires vector potential.Its obvious that really small wires are just infinitely long cylinders:

∇xA=B
∫∇xA.da=∫B.da
∫A.dl = ∫B.da = φ(flux)
For an infinite cylinder
A.2πri=B.2πrih
A=Bh
A=μ0*I*h/(2π*r)

Now for a cylinder of radius limr->0 => μ0I/2π which I am sure is wrong (interesting multiply this by r and u get B field of a wire)

Obviously for infinitely long wire:
A = (μ0/I2π)(log(Λρ+√1+Λ2ρ2))

Any help?
 
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Your equation using ## B ## to try to generate ## A ## is somewhat clever, but your path of integration is inconsistent with the area over which you took the flux. By Stokes theorem, the path of ## \oint A \cdot dl ## needs to be around the region of the flux of ## B ##. ## \\ ## The equation you need is of the form ## \vec{A}(x)=\int \frac{\mu_o}{4 \pi} \frac{\vec{J}(x')}{|x-x'| } \, d^3 x' ##. For ## \vec{J}=J_z \hat{z} ##, ## \vec{A} ## will only have a z-component.
 
Charles Link said:
Your equation using ## B ## to try to generate ## A ## is somewhat clever, but your path of integration is inconsistent with the area over which you took the flux. By Stokes theorem, the path of ## \oint A \cdot dl ## needs to be around the region of the flux of ## B ##. ## \\ ## The equation you need is of the form ## \vec{A}(x)=\int \frac{\mu_o}{4 \pi} \frac{\vec{J}(x')}{|x-x'| } \, d^3 x' ##. For ## \vec{J}=J_z \hat{z} ##, ## \vec{A} ## will only have a z-component.
Hmm , so which path of integration would i take? or is that not possible?
 
[corrected typos indicated in #5]

This is a very tricky issue, because the infinite wire is a physical idealization, and you have to use a more clever formula to evaluate the potential (there's no such problem for ##\vec{B}##, which can be calculated with the standard Biot-Savart formulat). The reason is that the naive integral for ##\vec{A}## of course diverges for and infinitely long wire. In this case, it's much easier to directly integrate the differential equation for ##\vec{A}## with the ansatz
$$\vec{A}=\vec{e}_z A(R),$$
where I use standard cylinder coordinates ##(R,\varphi,z)##. Using the standard formulae for curl in cylinder coordinates you get
$$\vec{B}=\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{A} = -A'(R) \vec{e}_{\varphi}, \quad \vec{\nabla} \times \vec{B}=-\frac{1}{R} \left (R A'(R) \right )' \stackrel{!}{=} \mu_0 \vec{j}.$$
With
$$\vec{j}=\frac{I}{\pi a^2} \Theta(a-R) \vec{e}_z=j_0 \Theta(a-R) \vec{e}_z$$
you get by simple integration (for ##R<a##)
$$A_{<}=-\frac{\mu_0 j_0}{4} R^2,$$
where I used the fact that the potential is regular at ##R=0##. For ##R>a## you get
$$A_{>}=C_1-C_2 \ln \left (\frac{R}{a} \right).$$
Continuity demands ##C_1=-\mu_0 j_0 a^2/4##. The magnetic field is
$$\vec{B}_<=\frac{\mu_0 j_0 R}{2} \vec{e}_{\varphi}, \quad \vec{B}_>=\frac{C_2}{R} \vec{e}_{\varphi}.$$
Since there are no surface currents ##\vec{B}## must be continuous at ##R=a##, i.e.,
$$\frac{C_2}{a}=\frac{\mu_0 j_0 a}{2} \; \Rightarrow \; C_2=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi},$$
and thus
$$\vec{B}_{<}=\frac{\mu_0 I R}{2 \pi a^2} \vec{e}_{\varphi}, \quad \vec{B}_{>}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{2 \pi R} \vec{e}_{\varphi}.$$
 
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vanhees71 said:
∇×→B=−1R(1RA′(r))′!=μ0→j.B→=∇→×A→=−A′(R)e→φ,∇→×B→=−1R(1RA′(r))′=!μ0j→.​
\vec{B}=\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{A} = -A'(R) \vec{e}_{\varphi}, \quad \vec{\nabla} \times \vec{B}=-\frac{1}{R} \left (\frac{1}{R} A'(r) \right )' \stackrel{!}{=} \mu_0 \vec{j}.
One correction, if my algebra/calculus is correct when I looked up the curl in cylindrical coordinates: The curl of ## A ## generates a ## \phi ## component of ## B ##, (##B_{\phi}=- A'(R) ##), and when taking the curl of that, the term of interest, (the z component of the curl of ## B ##), has ## \frac{1}{R} ( \frac{\partial{( R \, B_{\phi})} }{\partial{R}}) ## so that it should be ##( \nabla \times \vec{B})_z=-\frac{1}{R}(R \, A'(R))' =\mu_o j_o ##. ## \\ ## (This is apparently a "typo" because the subsequent solutions for ## A(R) ## are correct, and they are the solutions that are obtained with this correction). ## \\ ## And one additional minor "typo": ## C_1=-\mu_o j_o a^2/4 ##, (where it should be ## j_o ## rather than ## r_u ##). ## \\ ## A very interesting solution. Thank you @vanhees71 ! :)
 
Last edited:
Indeed! Thanks. I corrected the typos in the posting.
 
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