Verify y1 solves 2nd order differential equation

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around verifying that the function y1 = (e^x) * (cos x) is a solution to the second order linear homogeneous differential equation y'' - 2y' + 2y = 0.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the differentiation of the function y1, with one participant attempting to apply the product rule and expressing frustration at getting stuck in circles. Another participant questions the results of the differentiation.

Discussion Status

Some guidance has been offered suggesting that the participant should find the first and second derivatives of y1 and substitute them back into the differential equation to check if it equals zero. There is recognition of a misunderstanding regarding the use of integration versus differentiation.

Contextual Notes

One participant notes confusion between integration by parts and the product rule, indicating a potential misunderstanding of the differentiation process required for the problem.

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Homework Statement


Verify that y1 = (e^x) * (cos x) solves the linear, homogeneous, 2nd order differential equation y'' - 2y' + 2y = 0


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


So I used the product rule but just kept going in circles with the cos x. I remember there's a way to do this so you don't go in circles, but I forgot! I'd appreciate any help.
 
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What did you get when you differentiated it?
 
So the product rule is fg' = fg - int(gf').
I said f = cos x, so f' = -sin x dx, and g' = e^x, so g = e^x.
This gives me e^x(cos x) - int(e^x(-sin x) dx) = e^x(cos x) + int(e^x(sin x) dx).
So then I have to use the product rule again for that integral, with f = e^x, f' = e^x dx, g' = sin x, and g = -cos x. This gives me -e^x(cos x) + int(e^x(cos x) dx) for that integral, and putting that together with what was in front of it:
y1' = e^x(cos x) - e^x(cos x) - int(e^x(cos x) dx)
y1' = -int (e^x(cos x) dx)

So I'm pretty much back where I started.
 
You do not need to integrate anything.

Just find y1'', y1' and you have y, put back into the DE and see if you get zero. If you do, it satisfies the DE.
 
OH! I was using integration by parts instead of the product rule. Oi, I shouldn't get integration and differentiation mixed up :P

Thanks!
 

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