Vertical motion with air friction

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the analysis of vertical motion of an object falling under the influence of gravity and air resistance, modeled by the equation m(dv/dt) = mg - kv, where R = kv represents the air friction force.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the separation of variables and integration techniques to solve the differential equation. There are attempts to clarify the integration process and the application of integration by parts, with some questioning the correctness of the approach.

Discussion Status

Some participants are revisiting their initial attempts and seeking clarification on the integration steps. There is a recognition of a potential misunderstanding regarding the integration method, and a few participants express agreement on certain aspects of the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is an indication of confusion regarding the treatment of constants in the equation and the integration process, which may affect the overall understanding of the problem. Participants are also reflecting on their assumptions about the integration technique used.

cscott
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An object falling from some point in the air (near the surface) with air friction, R = kv.

So,

[tex]m\frac{dv}{dt} = mg - kv[/tex]

separate variables for

[tex]\int \frac{m}{mg - kv} \cdot dv = \int dt[/tex]

and for the LHS I use integration by parts, so,

[tex](m)(mgv - \frac{1}{2}kv^2) - \int mgv - \frac{1}{2}kv^2 \cdot dv = t[/tex]

am on the right track here?
 
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cscott said:
An object falling from some point in the air (near the surface) with air friction, R = kv.

So,

[tex]m\frac{dv}{dt} = mg - kv[/tex]

separate variables for

[tex]\int \frac{m}{mg - kv} \cdot dv = \int dt[/tex]

and for the LHS I use integration by parts, so,

[tex](m)(mgv - \frac{1}{2}kv^2) - \int mgv - \frac{1}{2}kv^2 \cdot dv = t[/tex]

am on the right track here?
Your integration by parts is incorrect (I have no idea what you used for ''u'' and ''v'' but there is no way to get what you wrote).
The integral over v is basically a log, that's all.
 
Woops, I see what I did. Let me try that again.

But it should take the form

[tex](m)\int (mg - kv)^{-1} \cdot dv - \int (1)\left(\int (mg - kv)^{-1}\right) \cdot dv = t[/tex]

correct?

edit: missed your part about a log. I guess we agree?
 
Last edited:
cscott said:
Woops, I see what I did. Let me try that again.

But it should take the form

[tex](m)\int (mg - kv)^{-1} \cdot dv - \int (1)\left(\int (mg - kv)^{-1}\right) \cdot dv = t[/tex]

correct?

edit: missed your part about a log. I guess we agree?
? The first term is the integral you started with! I am not sure where the second term could come from.

You can do the integral in one step, without using integ by parts
 
asdfakj I wasn't thinking of that m as a constant for some reason :\ I see now, thanks.
 

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