Volume integral to spherical coords to contour integral

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the evaluation of the volume integral in spherical coordinates, specifically for the potential function V(x) defined as V(x) = ∫ (d³q/(2π)³) (-g²/(|q|² + m²)) e^(i q · x). The transformation from a three-dimensional integral to a one-dimensional integral is clarified, particularly the emergence of the term (e^(iqr) - e^(-iqr))/(iqr), which resembles the sine function. The transition from the second to the third line involves changing the limits of integration and applying symmetry principles, leading to the expression V(q) = -g²/(q² + m²) in momentum space.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier transforms in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with spherical coordinates and their application in integrals
  • Knowledge of Yukawa theory and the role of coupling constants
  • Basic principles of momentum space in particle physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of Fourier transforms in quantum field theory
  • Learn about the implications of Yukawa interactions in particle physics
  • Explore the mathematical techniques for evaluating integrals in spherical coordinates
  • Investigate symmetry properties in quantum mechanical integrals
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in theoretical physics, particularly those focusing on quantum mechanics, particle physics, and mathematical methods in physics.

sbh77
Messages
2
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


V(x) = \int \frac{d^3q}{(2\pi)^3} \frac{-g^2}{|\vec{q}|^2 + m^2} \exp^{i \vec{q} \cdot \vec{x}}

= -\frac{g^2}{4\pi^2} \int_0^{\infty} dq q^2 \frac{exp^{iqr}-exp^{-iqr}}{iqr} \frac{1}{q^2+m^2}

= \frac{-g^2}{4\pi^2 i r} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dq \frac{q exp^{iqr}}{q^2+m^2}


Homework Equations



none

The Attempt at a Solution



I understand how the measure changes to a single integral with a factor of 4\pi (integrating out the angles leaving the radial one) and I also know that a vector in spherical coordinates is represented just by a quantity in the radial direction. The problem I am having is I don't know where the term \frac{exp^{iqr}-exp^{-iqr}}{iqr} came from. It almost looks like sin but the "i" is in the denominator.

My last question is why does the second line become the third? I see the limits of integration are changed but why did the second exponential term disappear? Is it a symmetry thing?

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
here it is in tex, just need the tags either side
V(x) = \int \frac{d^3q}{(2\pi)^3} \frac{-g^2}{|\vec{q}|^2 + m^2} e^{i \vec{q} \cdot \vec{x}}

= -\frac{g^2}{4\pi^2} \int_0^{\infty} dq q^2 \frac{e^{iqr}-e^{-iqr}}{iqr} \frac{1}{q^2+m^2}

= \frac{-g^2}{4\pi^2 i r} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dq \frac{q e^{iqr}}{q^2+m^2}
 
note 1/i = -i

can you decribe the problem a bit more, looks like an integral over momentum space?
what are x & r this problem?
 
also the 3rd line probably comes about by splitting the second line into a sum of 2 intergals and changing variables in one, q -> -q then recombining...
 
ah, my mistake, x and r are the same thing. I am just comparing the first Born approximation with that of the transition matrix element for two fermions scattering off of each other. By making this comparison it can be seen that the potential (in momentum space) is

V(q) = \frac{-g^2}{q^2+m^2} (sorry, I don't know what these tags are)

where "g" is the coupling constant in the Yukawa theory and m is the mass of the fermion. So I am just inverting this back to coordinate space. "q" is the momentum difference between the inbound and outbound fermion - along the propagator in a Feynman diagram.

Fourier transforms have never been my strong point! :)

Thanks again!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • · Replies 47 ·
2
Replies
47
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
1K