Averagesupernova said:
Subtracting out the flux as you say is not what
@mabilde is doing since his test leads are never anything but radially positioned. There is never anything formed on the radial leads to subtract out. So those are your 'flux free loop".
Terminology aside though, I think I do understand your argument. And the argument makes sense IF you adopt the viewpoint that the 'voltage' in that section of conducting wire is real, and that's where we see things differently. Let me see if I can describe the situation from both points of view. Just to be clear, I'm talking about the section of the copper ring uninterrupted by resistors, but there are large, lumped resistors elsewhere in the ring.
We both agree that there is no induced field / emf (what you've been calling flux) in the voltmeter leads, as they are placed radially at right angles to the induced electric field, which points around the circle. You regard the 'emf' in the wire section (the pie crust so to speak) as real, and that's what Mabilde is measuring. I've been making the point that he's simply measuring the changing magnetic flux through his measurement loop (the loop being the entire wedge shaped area leads and wire section). If you're a proponent that the emf in the wire is real, you should be saying of "Of course he's measuring the flux in his loop, that is equivalent to the induced emf in the wire section - they're the same thing!" I believe this is what
@alan123hk has been saying - it's a real measurement, not a 'simulation' as I've suggested.
In other words we SHOULD agree that there is flux through his measurement loop. You would argue this is equivalent to the real emf he's measuring in the wire, I say there's nothing there. Partly this comes down to voltage convention.
My conception of voltage - path voltage - corresponds to electric field. You cannot have a voltage without electric field, as voltage by definition is the summation of electric field over length. Or think of electric field as a voltage difference spread over a length. But you can't have one without the other. You yourself said if there's voltage difference across two points, there's an electric field between them. That's the path voltage convention.
Now, the electric field in the wire section is in fact zero. This point is not a matter of convention. This is because the induced 'emf' from the solenoid pushes charge around until they build up at the resistors, and that charge pushes back, building up until an equilibrium is reached. This is the exact same thing that happens with electric field in a wire between resistors in a DC circuit - the only difference is we're replacing the battery's emf with induced emf. You CANNOT have a non-zero e-field in conducting wire, or you would get arbitrarily large / infinite current. This is why I claim there is no voltage in the wire section. I'm NOT ignoring the induced emf, I'm simply saying that the field associated with it has been redistributed to just the resistors only after the charges reposition themselves.
The other voltage convention, scalar potential, which
@alan123hk and Kirk McDonald use, ONLY considers the voltage from the static charges. It literally ignores induced emf (BECAUSE it is non-conservative) and measures the reaction of the charges TO the induced emf. So now you can 'assign' voltage to regions where there is no NET electric field, only the static field produced by the charges built up at the resistors. This is what McDonald does in his paper (that both Mabilde and RSD Academy cite) - he has 'potentials' in regions where he acknowledges there is no electric field. The sum of the 'voltages' under this convention add to zero.
Obviously I don't like this convention, but both sides do agree (or at least should) on the physics itself. In his paper, McDonald clearly states that the sum of ELECTRIC FIELD is NON-ZERO around the loop, and also acknowledges that some people (a.k.a. Lewin and most physicists) use the NET field to define voltage as I have. So if they actually understand McDonald's paper (I'm not sure if they do), I don't understand why Mabilde or RSD would say Lewin is wrong, rather than saying that his physics is right but he's using a different convention.
Now I don't know what convention you're using - I have a feeling you've taken a "voltage is voltage" view without worrying about the particulars, and you think you agree with Mabilde. But you have told me you think the net electric field in the conducting wire is non-zero, which would contradict physics. If I could, I would love to pin down
@mabilde and/or RSD Acadamy and ask what they think the net electric field is in the conducting wires, all voltage terminology / conventions aside (same question I was asking you). If they say zero, then there is no conflict in physics, just convention. If they say non-zero, then I would question their understanding of physics.