Marchigno
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Hi! According to quantum field theory, must the wave function of two different fermions be antisymmetric?
If I have a state of two equal fermions: b^\dagger(p_1)b^\dagger(p_2)|0> I can construct the general state of two fermions:
\int d^3p_1 d^3p_2f(p_1,p_2)b^\dagger(p_1)b^\dagger(p_2)|0>
where f is the wave function. Now because \{b^\dagger(p_1),b^\dagger(p_2)\}=0
the wave function f mast be antisymmetric.
The question is: if I now consider two different fermions: b^\dagger(p_1)d^\dagger(p_1)|0>
so that the general state is
\int d^3p_1 d^3p_2f(p_1,p_2)b^\dagger(p_1)d^\dagger(p_2)|0>
because
\{b^\dagger(p_1),d^\dagger(p_2)\}=0
remains true, does it mean the wave function of any two fermions will be antisymmetric? I thought it was true only for two identical particles!
Thank you for the answers! :)
If I have a state of two equal fermions: b^\dagger(p_1)b^\dagger(p_2)|0> I can construct the general state of two fermions:
\int d^3p_1 d^3p_2f(p_1,p_2)b^\dagger(p_1)b^\dagger(p_2)|0>
where f is the wave function. Now because \{b^\dagger(p_1),b^\dagger(p_2)\}=0
the wave function f mast be antisymmetric.
The question is: if I now consider two different fermions: b^\dagger(p_1)d^\dagger(p_1)|0>
so that the general state is
\int d^3p_1 d^3p_2f(p_1,p_2)b^\dagger(p_1)d^\dagger(p_2)|0>
because
\{b^\dagger(p_1),d^\dagger(p_2)\}=0
remains true, does it mean the wave function of any two fermions will be antisymmetric? I thought it was true only for two identical particles!
Thank you for the answers! :)