Wave functions and probability

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of finding a particle described by a normalized wave function at a specific distance from the origin. The user is confused about the absence of complex numbers in the wave function and the need for its modulus to compute probabilities. Clarifications are provided that the probability can be expressed as |\psi|^2 dV, specifically using the formula |\psi|^2 4\pi r^2 dr for a spherical shell. The importance of understanding the derivation of the integral for probability density is emphasized. The user acknowledges the guidance and plans to revisit the problem.
ariana13
Messages
8
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


I've had lectures on the theory of this topic, but I've not been given any examples and I'm struggling with how to apply the theory to this homework question:
A particle is described by the normalised wave function

Si(x,y,z)=Ae^-h(x^2+y^2+z^2) where A and h are real positive constants.

Determine the probability of finding the particle at a distance between r and r+dr from the origin.


Homework Equations


p=integral (mod[Si(x,y,z)])^2 dxdydz


The Attempt at a Solution


I thought that the wave function was supposed to involve complex numbers, but there's no i in the wave function? I thought i needed the conjugate of the wave function to find mod[Si(x,y,z)]?
I think once i find (mod[Si(x,y,z)])^2 i then need to integrate it over the volume of a spherical shell with radius r and thickness dr, so r^2=x^2+y^2+z^2 but I'm confused about how to compute this integral. Do i need to parametrise the variables?

I'm obviously not asking for someone to give me the solution, but I'm having a hard time figuring out where to start with this problem, so any help would be greatly appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Your wavefunction is not normalized! Was there a specific finite domain where it was non-zero and you forgot to include that in your post?

Anyway you are not evaluating an integral. The probability you are looking for is |\psi|^2 dV = |\psi|^2 4\pi r^2 dr.
 
No, i copied the question down word for word, it says that the wave function is normalised! I'm sorry, I'm still very confused because it says in my lecture notes that i have to integrate to find the probability. Can you please tell me where you get |\psi|^2 dV = |\psi|^2 4\pi r^2 dr from?
 
Elementary probability theory--

The probability of a variable X assuming a value between X=x and X=x+dx is

dP=\rho(x)dx
where \rho is the probability density.

You need that local probability so that you can integrate it to obtain global ones. The integral formula comes from this. The exercise is meant to see if you were paying attention to the derivation.
 
I was paying attention in the derivation, i just found it a bit hard to follow. Thankyou for your help, I'll the question another go.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
723
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
855
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
668
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
64
Views
5K