Waves: When do we use $e^{i(-kx + wt)}$ as opposed to $e^{i(kx - wt)}$

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Both wave representations, $e^{i(-kx + wt)}$ and $e^{i(kx - wt)}$, describe waves traveling in the positive x-direction and are mathematically equivalent, as one is the complex conjugate of the other. The choice between them often depends on convenience in calculations, as certain forms may simplify the mathematics better in specific contexts. Physicists typically prefer the form with $e^{-i\omega t}$, while electrical engineers use $e^{+j\omega t}$, leading to potential confusion when comparing literature across disciplines. When analyzing wave interactions, particularly with phase differences, the choice of notation can impact the ease of differentiation and the clarity of results. Ultimately, the selection of one form over the other is largely a matter of convention and context.
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Both of these represent waves moving in the $+x$ direction. I have seen both used in Howard Georgi's book on waves and oscillations, but it has not been explained which is used in which circumstances. What is the difference between the two and when do we use which?

Thanks in advance.
 
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Is this the solution that the two are exactly equivalent?

I think i might have found the solution. That the two are exactly equivalent: Because $e^{i(-kz + wt)} = cos(-k(z- (w/k)t) = cos(k(z-vt)), and $e^{i(kz - wt)}= cos(k(z- (w/k)t) = cos(k(z-vt)).$

This is rather interesting, because in some displacement solutions, one form is easier to work with than the other as terms cancel easily. Is there a general rule as to when to use which [just for neatness and appropriateness?]
 
Yes the two waves are indeed entirely equivalent because one is the complex conjugate of the other. I'm not a big fan of the statement $$e^{i(-kz + wt)} = cos(-k(z- (w/k)t) = cos(k(z-vt))$$ because the right side is just the real part of the left side. That means they are NOT equal unless the imaginary part vanishes which is not the case. I doubt very much that one of them is easier to work with in any situation. Math is totally symmetric under the replacement i --> (-i).
 
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Thanks very much. When we consider the movement of peaks is fits and spurts when two waves of opposite directions are coming with some phase difference, we differentiate to find a maximum by taking the derivative with respect to x and then use implicit differentiation to find the derivative with respect to $t$. If we use the $$e^{i(-kx + wt)}$$ and $$e^{(i(kx+wt))}$ then if we take the x derivative and set it equal to zero the $$e^{iwt})$$ will get canceled out which is undesirable since you want the time derivative. If we use the other form however, the mathematics is smooth (I.e if we use $$e^{i(kx-wt)}$$ and $$e^{i(kx+wt)}$$. This is an example of a problem where one notation presents the problem neatly as compared with the other.
 
Whether you use the one or the other solution, representing a "right-moving wave" is indeed just a matter of convention. They are completely equivalent. The bad thing is that different communities use the one and others the other convention. Usually, physicists use the version with \exp(-\mathrm{i} \omega t), while in electrical engineering they write \exp(+\mathrm{j} \omega t), using also j instead of i for the imaginary unit ;-)). This is only a problem when comparing solutions of the wave equation in different textbooks/papers using different conventions.
 
122520253025 said:
Thanks very much. When we consider the movement of peaks is fits and spurts when two waves of opposite directions are coming with some phase difference, we differentiate to find a maximum by taking the derivative with respect to x and then use implicit differentiation to find the derivative with respect to $t$. If we use the $$e^{i(-kx + wt)}$$ and $$e^{(i(kx+wt))}$ then if we take the x derivative and set it equal to zero the $$e^{iwt})$$ will get canceled out which is undesirable since you want the time derivative. If we use the other form however, the mathematics is smooth (I.e if we use $$e^{i(kx-wt)}$$ and $$e^{i(kx+wt)}$$. This is an example of a problem where one notation presents the problem neatly as compared with the other.

Your latex is messed up. Try using ##e^{-i(kx+wt)}## instead of ##e^{i(kx+wt)}## and you will see what I mean.
 
Sorry - corrected that: Here is the corrected version: Thanks very much. When we consider the movement of peaks is fits and spurts when two waves of opposite directions are coming with some phase difference, we differentiate to find a maximum by taking the derivative with respect to x and then use implicit differentiation to find the derivative with respect to $t$. If we use the $$e^{i(-kx + wt)}$$ and $$e^{(i(kx+wt))}$$ then if we take the x derivative and set it equal to zero the $e^{iwt})$ will get canceled out which is undesirable since you want the time derivative. If we use the other form however, the mathematics is smooth (I.e if we use $e^{i(kx-wt)}$ and $e^{i(kx+wt)}$). This is an example of a problem where one notation presents the problem neatly as compared with the other.
 
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