JizzaDaMan
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It's easy to show that \frac{dy}{dx} of y = ln(ax) where a \in ℝ, a > 0 is always \frac{1}{x} :
y = ln(ax)
y = ln(a) + ln(x)
ln(a) is constant so its derivative is 0, and the derivative of ln(x) is \frac{1}{x}.
Hence:
\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{x}
Attached is an image of y=ln(ax) with a = 1,2,3,4,5. It also shows all of their derivatives to be the same (the curve at the top). But they are clearly different curves! There must be some point at which one has a larger gradient than the others?? What am I missing?
y = ln(ax)
y = ln(a) + ln(x)
ln(a) is constant so its derivative is 0, and the derivative of ln(x) is \frac{1}{x}.
Hence:
\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{x}
Attached is an image of y=ln(ax) with a = 1,2,3,4,5. It also shows all of their derivatives to be the same (the curve at the top). But they are clearly different curves! There must be some point at which one has a larger gradient than the others?? What am I missing?