What if the speed of gravitational waves were different from the speed of light?

AI Thread Summary
If gravitational waves traveled at a speed different from light, it would contradict the principles of general relativity, which asserts that all waves must travel at the same speed for all observers. This inconsistency would lead to mathematical contradictions, making the scenario impossible to address meaningfully. The speed of light, historically measured before the discovery of gravitational waves, is considered the universal speed limit. Current gravitational wave detection, primarily from colliding black holes, relies on LIGO observatories, with future triangulation methods expected to enhance understanding. Ultimately, any deviation from the speed of light for gravitational waves would challenge the validity of general relativity, which has consistently passed empirical tests.
parshyaa
Messages
307
Reaction score
19
What would happened if the speed of gravitational waves were not equal to the speed of light . Please explain it with example of sun and Earth or any other but in easy way. With reference to general relativity.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
parshyaa said:
What would happened if the speed of gravitational waves were not equal to the speed of light . Please explain it with example of sun and Earth or any other but in easy way. With reference to general relativity.
It's not mathematically possible, which makes it impossible to sensibly answer the question as asked: it's like asking what would happen if we could factor a prime number.

Light is electromagnetic radiation obeying the laws of electricity and magnetism; gravitational waves obey the laws of gravity.

Both sets of laws have the property that they are the same for all observers regardless of their speed (we don't see the laws of E&M or gravity changing with the seasons even though the Earth is moving in a completely different direction in June and December). One consequence is that waves obeying these laws must travel at the same speed for all observers; this is the basis of Einstein's theory of special relativity.

It turns out that there can only be one "same for all observers" speed; if you assume that there is more than one you end up with mathematical contradictions and an inconsistent theory. So, since there's only one possible speed, they both have to travel at that speed, and it's the same for both of them.

It's actually a historical accident that we even call ##c## "the speed of light". We measured how fast light moves centuries before the discovery of electromagnetic and gravitational waves, so when we found that the one and only "same for all observers" speed was equal to the already known speed of light it was natural to keep calling that speed "the speed of light".
 
  • Like
Likes parshyaa
Well, it would mean that general relativity is not correct. But so far, general relativity has passed many of our tests with flying colors, so I wouldn't bet on it.
 
It would be interesting to observe a stellar object in the path of the gravitational wave that would display a visual result of the wave's passing through it.Then could we calculate the wave's speed of transmission using the distance between origin and impacted object?
 
The only thing we can detect with gravitational waves right now are colliding black holes. With the two LIGO observatories, we can't get a good measurement of where the gravitational waves are coming from, but when additional observatories come online we can do triangulation to find where they are coming from. Then we can compare with visual observatories.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'
Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...
Back
Top