James A. Putnam said:
Addressing this in particular: "As you can see, the integral of "force times distance" is most assuredly NOT independent of past history .. it is *defined* by past history. The quantity represented by the integral of "force times distance" is called work in physics. Work is a *change* in energy of a system. "
I would appreciate your view on this: The integral of force times distance is independent of past history. That is why a constant force can be substituted to represent all examples of force times distance. That is why a constant force can be used to derive Einstein's energy equation.
My view on that is that it makes no sense at all .. at least not how you have stated it. First of all, let's look at the actual mathematical derivation of work, because the phrases we have been using to describe it (i.e. force times distance or even the integral of force times distance) are imprecise at best.
The equation for work is: W_C=\int _C\vec{F}\cdot d\vec{r}
What that integral means is, "The work expended over some arbitrary path C is the integral of the dot product of the force vector and the infinitesimal change in the position vector along all points on the path C." That is what I meant when I said you can't even calculate a value for work until you know the path that was taken. This is to be contrasted with the difference in energy between starting and ending points of that same arbitrary path C. That energy difference is a STATE FUNCTION! It always has the same value whether you take path C, or D or XYZ. That is why although work is a change in energy, and has the units of energy, it is not the same thing as energy. Seriously man, if you don't get this, just look at the thermodynamics chapter of your physics textbook, or even a decent college level chemistry textbook .. it will verify what I am saying and give more carefully constructed examples.
I have no idea what you are talking about when you mention "constant force" or "einstein's energy equation". Are you talking about E=Mc[sup2[/sup]? Because I am pretty sure he didn't use any sort of idea about "constant force" to derive that.
"Now you are perhaps getting the idea .. that last statement is close to correct ... work is the *PATH-DEPENDENT CHANGE* in energy as a force is applied to a system over a particular path. " I think I have the idea. Still, I would be interested in your explanation about why a change in energy is not a recognized as simply a change in energy, but rather, work?
I explained that above ... and I have explained it many times. I can only conclude that you don't understand what a state function is, and why a state function is different from a path-dependent quantity.
I put forward the view that energy and work have the same units because they are the same thing. Any differences are semantical. The introduction of the word 'capacity' for purposes of mediating between the two is, from my viewpoint, semantical. Still, if the book answer must be that they are different things, then let the book answer rule. However, they both result from the integral of force times distance and they both suffer from the unknown nature of force.
Sorry, but that is simply wrong, at least from the standpoint of physics. I and many others on this thread have tried to explain to you why it is wrong. If you don't understand our answers, perhaps you should take it upon yourself to do some more careful reading to better understand why what we are saying is correct.
Is there an instance where work occurs that I cannot equate every step, even infintesimal steps, with the existence of energy?
No there is not ... that is because
work always involves a change in energy! On the other hand,
changes in energy do not always involve work. In thermodynamics, the energy change for a given process is defined as the sum of heat and work exchanged. in that process. If no work is done, then the energy change is due ONLY to the exchange of heat. If the process is adiabatic (i.e. no heat exchanged), then the energy change is due only to the work expended during the process.