What is Euler's identity really saying?

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Euler's identity, expressed as e^(iπ) + 1 = 0, links five fundamental mathematical constants: e, i, π, 1, and 0. This connection arises from the definition of the complex exponential function, which can be derived using power series expansions for exponential, sine, and cosine functions. By substituting the imaginary unit into the exponential function, it can be shown that e^(ix) equals cos(x) + i sin(x). When x is set to π, the identity simplifies to e^(iπ) = -1, reinforcing the relationship between these constants. The discussion emphasizes that while the identity is profound, its derivation is straightforward and rooted in established mathematical principles.
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So it is true that ei∏+1=0. But what does this mean? Why are all these numbers linked?
 
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MadViolinist said:
So it is true that ei∏+1=0. But what does this mean? Why are all these numbers linked?



They are linked precisely by that equation, and since the equality e^{i\theta}:=\cos\theta+i\sin\theta\,\,,\,\,\theta\in\mathbb{R}\,\, follows at once say from the definition

of the complex exponential function as power series (or as limit of a sequence), the above identity is really trivial.

DonAntonio
 
Look at the MacLaurin series for those functions:
e^x= 1+ x+ x^2/2!+ x^3/3!+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ x^n/n!
cos(x)= 1- x^2/2!+ x^4/4!- x^6/6!+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ (-1)^nx^{2n}/(2n)!
sin(x)= x- x^3/3!+ x^5/5!- x^7/7!+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ (-1)^nx^{2n+1}/(2n)!

If you replace x with the imaginary number ix (x is still real) that becomes
e^{ix}= 1+ ix+ (ix)^2/2!+ (ix)^3/3!+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ (ix)^n/n!
e^{ix}= 1+ ix+ i^2x^2/2!+ i^3x^3/3!+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ i^nx^n/n!

But it is easy to see that, since i^2= -1, (i)^3= (i)^2(i)= -i, (i)^4= (i^3)(i)= -i(i)= -(-1)= 1 so then it starts all over: i^5= (i^5)i= i, etc. That is, all even powers of i are 1 if the power is 0 mod 4 and -1 if it is 2 mod 4. All odd powers are i if the power is 1 mod 4 and -i if it is 3 mod 4.

e^{ix}= 1+ ix- x^2/2!- ix^3/3!+ \cdot\cdot\cdot

Separating into real and imaginary parts,
e^{ix}= (1- x^2/2!+ x^4/4!- x^6/6!+ \cdot\cdot\cdot)+ i(x- x^3/3!+ x^5/5!+ \cdot\cdot\cdot)
e^{ix}= cos(x)+ i sin(x)

Now, take = \pi so that cos(x)= cos(\pi)= -1 and sin(x)= sin(\pi)= 0 and that becomes
e^{i\pi}= -1
or
e^{i\pi}+ 1= 0

I hope that is what you are looking for. Otherwise, what you are asking is uncomfortably close to "number mysticism".
 
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