What is the Derivative of g(x) at x=0 if g(x) = [f(x)]^2?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the derivative of the function g(x) = [f(x)]^2 at x=0, given that f is differentiable at that point and specific values for f(0) and f'(0). The problem involves concepts from calculus, particularly the application of the chain rule in differentiation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the derivative of g(x) using different reasoning approaches, with some suggesting that g'(0) could be derived directly from f'(0). Others question this reasoning, indicating a need for clarification on the application of the chain rule.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their thoughts and reasoning. Some guidance has been provided regarding the correct application of the chain rule, but there is no explicit consensus on the final answer yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the assumption that f is differentiable at x=0, and they are considering the implications of the given values for f(0) and f'(0). There is some uncertainty about the correct method to apply in finding g'(0.

lelandsthename
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Homework Statement


If f is differentiable at x=0 and g(x) = [f(x)]^2, f(0) = f'(0) = -1, then g'(0) =


Homework Equations


MC Answers:
(A) -2 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 4 (E) 2


The Attempt at a Solution



The only thing I could think of was that if g(x) = (f(x))^2 then g'(0) = (f'(0))^2 and then g'(0) = 1. Does this make sense? I kind of feel like my logic is pseudo math and is giving me an incorrect answer.
 
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I would say C) but I can't say if my thinking is correct...it amounts to the same as yours...except for one part
 
By the chain rule, g'(x) = 2f(x)f'(x).
 
lelandsthename said:

Homework Statement


If f is differentiable at x=0 and g(x) = [f(x)]^2, f(0) = f'(0) = -1, then g'(0) =


Homework Equations


MC Answers:
(A) -2 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 4 (E) 2


The Attempt at a Solution



The only thing I could think of was that if g(x) = (f(x))^2 then g'(0) = (f'(0))^2 and then g'(0) = 1. Does this make sense? I kind of feel like my logic is pseudo math and is giving me an incorrect answer.
You are right- your logic is pseudo math! :smile:The difficulty is that g'(x) is NOT (f'(x))2. As Avodyne said, you need to use the chain rule: g(x)= u2 and u= f(x). dg/dx= (dg/du)(du/dx).
 

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