What is the elementary method used to prove the log(sin) integral?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of the integral $$\int^1_0 \log(\sin(\pi x)) \, dx$$ and its equivalence to $$-\log(2)$$. Participants explore various methods of proof, including complex analysis and real analysis approaches, without reaching a consensus on a single method as definitive.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes a complex analysis approach involving the function $$f(z)=\log(1-e^{2iz})$$ and discusses integrating over a contour in the complex plane.
  • Another participant suggests a real analysis method that involves manipulating the integral of $$\log(\sin(x))$$ and using properties of the sine function.
  • Several participants express confusion regarding the specific function being integrated in the complex analysis approach, indicating a need for clarification.
  • Another participant presents an elementary method that utilizes the symmetry of the sine function and properties of logarithms to derive the integral's value.
  • Multiple participants reiterate the result of the integral being $$-\log(2)$$, but they do not agree on the superiority of any particular method presented.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on a single method for proving the integral's value. Various approaches are discussed, with some participants favoring complex analysis while others prefer real analysis techniques. Confusion exists regarding the integration function in the complex approach.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note potential issues with assumptions in the complex analysis method, and there are references to corrections and updates made to earlier posts, indicating ongoing refinement of the arguments presented.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be of interest to those studying advanced calculus, complex analysis, or mathematical proofs involving integrals, particularly in the context of logarithmic and trigonometric functions.

alyafey22
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Prove the following

$$\int^1_0 \log(\sin(\pi x)) \, dx = - \log(2)$$

where $$\log$$ represents the natural logarithm (Smoking)
 
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Let $u=\pi x$. The integral turns into
\[\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^{\pi}\log(\sin u)\,du.\]
Consider the function
\[f(z)=\log(1-e^{2iz})=\log(-2ie^{iz}\sin z)=\log(1-e^{-2y}(\cos(2x)+i\sin(2x))).\]
This function is real and negative if $y<0$ and $x=n\pi$. If we delete these half lines, we can assume that $\log$ is single-valued and analytic.
integral_contour-1.png
We now integrate over the rectangle with corners $z=0$, $z=\pi$, $z=\pi+iy$ and $z=iy$ (and then we let $y\to\infty$ as seen in figure). At the points $0$ and $\pi$, we create circular arcs of radius $\epsilon$ to avoid these points. By periodicity of the function, the integral along the vertical lines is zero. Also, note that if $L$ is the line connecting $iy$ with $\pi+iy$, then
\[\left|\int_L f(z)\,dz\right|\leq 2\pi|e^{iz}|=2\pi e^{-y}\rightarrow 0\]
as $y\rightarrow\infty$. Now, notice that the imaginary part of the logarithm is bounded. Thus, we only need to worry about the real part. Observe that
\[\left|\frac{1-e^{2iz}}{z}\right|\rightarrow 2\]
as $z\rightarrow 0$; thus the logarithm behaves like $\log\epsilon$. As $\epsilon\log\epsilon\rightarrow 0$,
\[\int_{C_{\epsilon}}f(z)\,dz\rightarrow 0\]

Therefore,
\[\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^{\pi}\log(-2ie^{ix}\sin x)\,dx=0.\]
Now, consider the branch of the logarithm where $\log e^{ix} = ix$. Therefore, $\log(-i)=-\frac{\pi i}{2}$ and thus we see that
\[\frac{1}{\pi}\left[\pi\log 2-\frac{\pi^2 i}{2}+\int_0^{\pi}\log(\sin x)\,dx+\frac{\pi^2 i}{2}\right]=0\]
which implies that
\[\int_0^1\log(\sin\pi x)\,dx=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^{\pi}\log(\sin x)\,dx = -\log 2\]
and the proof is complete.

(I think this is good enough...let me know if there are any faulty assumptions on my part... XD)

EDIT #1: The diagram is incorrect (as I noticed when I pulled this from an old homework assignment in my complex analysis course; I'll update it in a few.)

EDIT #2: Updated the contour diagram.

EDIT #3: Fixed some typos.
 
Thanks Chris for the approach I always like a complex analysis approach even though we are actually using complex analysis using contours on the real axis .

I got confused in what function you are integrating ? , is it

$$f(z)=\log(1-e^{2iz})$$
 
Here is a method using real analysis $$\int^{\pi}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx = 2\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx $$

Now consider the following integral $$

I(s)=2\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 (\sin( x))^s \, dx = \frac{\Gamma \left( \frac{s+1}{2}\right) \Gamma \left( \frac{1}{2}\right)}{\Gamma \left( \frac{s}{2}+1 \right)}

$$

$$

I'(s)= 2\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 (\sin( x))^s \log( \sin(x)) \, dx = \frac{\Gamma \left( \frac{1}{2}\right)}{2} \frac{\Gamma\left( \frac{s+1}{2}\right) \psi_0\left( \frac{s+1}{2}\right)-\Gamma\left( \frac{s+1}{2}\right) \psi_0 \left( \frac{s}{2}+1 \right)}{\Gamma \left( \frac{s}{2}+1 \right)}

$$

$$

I'(0)= 2\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin(x)) \, dx = \frac{\pi \left( \psi_0\left( \frac{1}{2}\right)- \psi_0 \left(1 \right) \right)}{2} =-\pi \log(2)

$$$$\int^1_0 \log (\sin(\pi x)) \, dx = \frac{2}{\pi } \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin(x)) \, dx = -\log(2)$$
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
Thanks Chris for the approach I always like a complex analysis approach even though we are actually using complex analysis using contours on the real axis .

I got confused in what function you are integrating ? , is it

$$f(z)=\log(1-e^{2iz})$$

Oops, yea that's it. I fixed that in the original post.
 
Here is an approach using elementary methods

$$
\begin{align*}
I=\int^{\pi}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx &= 2\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx +\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_{0} \log( \sin( x)) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx +\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_{0} \log( \cos( x)) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x) \cos(x)) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log\left( \frac{\sin(2x)}{2} \right) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin(2x))\, dx -\frac{\pi}{2}\log(2) \\

&= \frac{I}{2} -\frac{\pi}{2}\log(2) \\

&=-\pi\log(2)

\end{align*}
[/Math]

$$\int^1_0 \log(\sin(\pi x))\, dx=\frac{I}{\pi} = -\log(2)$$
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
Here is an approach using elementary methods

$$
\begin{align*}
I=\int^{\pi}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx &= 2\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx +\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_{0} \log( \sin( x)) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x)) \, dx +\int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_{0} \log( \cos( x)) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin( x) \cos(x)) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log\left( \frac{\sin(2x)}{2} \right) \, dx \\

&= \int^{\frac{\pi}{2}}_0 \log( \sin(2x))\, dx -\frac{\pi}{2}\log(2) \\

&= \frac{I}{2} -\frac{\pi}{2}\log(2) \\

&=-\pi\log(2)

\end{align*}
$$

$$\int^1_0 \log(\sin(\pi x))\, dx=\frac{I}{\pi} = -\log(2)$$

(Yes) Nice use of the property:

$$\int_0^a f(x)\,dx=\int_0^a f(a-x)\,dx$$
 

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