doktordave
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I am beginning to study set theory and came across the following example:
Let \mathcal{A} be the empty family of subsets of \mathbb{R}. Since \mathcal{A} is empty, every member of \mathcal{A} contains all real numbers. That is, ((\forall A)(A\in\mathcal{A}\Rightarrow x\in A)) is true for all real numbers x. Thus \bigcap_{A\in\mathcal{A}} A = \mathbb{R}.
My problem is with the first sentence. Since a family is simply a set of sets, If we talk about an empty family wouldn't this simply be the empty set \emptyset? And since the empty set is defined not to contain anything, how could it contain any subsets of the set of real numbers?
Let \mathcal{A} be the empty family of subsets of \mathbb{R}. Since \mathcal{A} is empty, every member of \mathcal{A} contains all real numbers. That is, ((\forall A)(A\in\mathcal{A}\Rightarrow x\in A)) is true for all real numbers x. Thus \bigcap_{A\in\mathcal{A}} A = \mathbb{R}.
My problem is with the first sentence. Since a family is simply a set of sets, If we talk about an empty family wouldn't this simply be the empty set \emptyset? And since the empty set is defined not to contain anything, how could it contain any subsets of the set of real numbers?