Cylab said:
Thanks a lot,, Yes, it makes sense, but it is going to be big big big calculation...
wondering if there is any alternative?
Your problem is a bit unclear. Is the procedure as follows?
You choose 3 numbers a,b,c from the set {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9} such that a>b>c.
someone else puts 9 balls numbered {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9} in a bag, and draws out 3 at random without replacement. You're being told that is just so happened that those 3 balls were in the same order as your pick.
(or the drawing was repeated with refilling the bag after each set of 3 draws until the balls were drawn out in descending order)
If that is the case, then the probability is just 1 divided by the number of triples (a,b,c) with a>b>c. (should be easy)
The reply of HallsifIvy is then wrong, since the probability of getting a 3 or a 9 on the first draw isn't the same. There's only one combination that starts with a 3, and many that start with 9, so with the given information, 9 is far more likely than 3.
I believe it would be correct if all balls that are bigger than a ball that's already drawn, or that couldn't produce a valid combination (1,2 on the first draw and 1 on the second)
would be thrown back in the bag.