What is the true cause of friction?

  • Thread starter Thread starter ARC123
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Cause Friction
AI Thread Summary
Friction occurs even between flat surfaces due to the atomic interactions at play, primarily the Van der Waals forces. These forces arise from the repulsion between atoms when they come into close proximity, preventing smooth movement. Even perfectly flat materials have microscopic irregularities that contribute to friction. This atomic-level interaction is fundamental to understanding why friction exists, similar to the reason solid objects cannot pass through each other. Ultimately, the presence of these repulsive forces is a key factor in the phenomenon of friction.
ARC123
Messages
20
Reaction score
0
I know that most friction is caused from rough uneven surfaces rubbing each other, but what is the cause of friction between 2 flat surfaces?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
ARC123 said:
I know that most friction is caused from rough uneven surfaces rubbing each other, but what is the cause of friction between 2 flat surfaces?

I know that at least some of friction is due to the Van der Waals force between nearby atoms. That is the force that geckos use to climb walls.
 
It's from the atoms repelling each other due to the forces present in their atomic structure. The reason we have friction is the same reason we can't just walk through walls. No matter how thin or perfectly flat a material is, there will be friction due to those repulsive forces acting on each surface.
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top