What is with this line integral?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the application of Green's Theorem in evaluating line integrals, specifically addressing the expression Pdx + Qdy and its relationship to mixed partial derivatives. The user inquires about the differentiation of the terms P and Q and how to compute the definite integral using WolframAlpha. The explanation clarifies that the order of differentiation does not change but rather reflects the properties of mixed second partial derivatives, leading to the conclusion that the difference between these derivatives indicates how closely Pdx + Qdy approximates an exact differential.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Green's Theorem
  • Familiarity with line integrals
  • Knowledge of partial derivatives
  • Basic proficiency in using WolframAlpha for mathematical computations
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of Green's Theorem in vector calculus
  • Learn how to compute mixed partial derivatives
  • Explore the concept of exact differentials in multivariable calculus
  • Practice using WolframAlpha for evaluating double integrals
USEFUL FOR

Students of calculus, mathematicians, and anyone looking to deepen their understanding of vector calculus and line integrals.

flyingpig
Messages
2,574
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement




[PLAIN]http://img534.imageshack.us/img534/6859/unledei.jpg


3. The Solution

[PLAIN]http://img607.imageshack.us/img607/3104/unledfe.jpg

Why did they switch the order of x - 2xy3 in Green's Theorem?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
Also, if anyone could, tell me how to integrate this definite integral using Wolframalpha. I tried using

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate[x-2xy^3%2C+{y%2C0%2C2x}%2C{x%2C0%2C1}]

But it keeps treating it as a single variable integral.
 
Green's theorem says
[tex]\oint Pdx+ Qdy= \int\int \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}- \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}dA[/tex]

It is not that the "order" has changed but that the "P" (which is multiplied by dx in the path integral) is differentiated with respect to y and the "Q" (which is multiplied by dy in the path integral) is differentiated with respect to x. And the reason for that is connected to the equality of "mixed" second partials.

IF "Pdx+ Qdy" is an "exact differential"- that is, if there exist a function F(x,y) such that dF= Pdx+ Qdy, then [itex]\int Pdx+ Qdy= \int dF= F[/itex] evaluated between the end points of the path. And, of course, if the path is closed, the endpoints are the same and F(p)- F(p)= 0. But if Pdx+ Qdy is an exact differential, then we have [itex]P= \partial F/partial x[/itex] and [itex]Q= \partial F/\partial y[/itex] so that [itex]\partial P/\partial y= \partial F^2/\partial x\partial y[/itex] and [itex]\partial Q/\partial x= \partial F/\partial y\partial x[/itex] so that [itex]\partial Q/\partial x- \partial P/\partial y[/itex] is the difference between the two "mixed" second derivatives- and, of course, as long as the derivatives are continuous, those mixed derivatives are equal and their difference is 0.

In essence, then, the two sides of
[tex]\oint Pdx+ Qdy= \int\int \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}- \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}dA= \int\int \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}- \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}dA[/tex]
measure how much Pdx+ Qdy "misses" being an exact differential.
 

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
12
Views
5K
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K