aviv
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What makes nuclei disintegrate at a certain point in time as opposed to another? As in, what is the fundamental reason for disintegration finally happening in an unstable nucleus?
Originally posted by aviv
So what if we magically figure out the energy levels and all the properties of an unstable nucleus at a certain time (I know this is impossible but just for the sake or argument). Could we then predict the exact time of decay of that nucleus?
Originally posted by jcsd
The randomness is an intrinsic part of the system, you have a wavefunction which behaves in a perfectly deterministic way which can correspond to a single known energy level and a known potential, but when you go to make a measurment you'll always find that that there is a ceratin probabilty that decay has occured.
Originally posted by jcsd
the act of measutremnt forces the nucleus to decide whether it has decayed or not.
I wouldn't feel too bad about your level of understanding. If I'm not mistaken, Einstein didn't even ever come to understand (or even accept) it.Originally posted by aviv
I still don't understand a hell of a lot about this, like how exctly "the act of measutremnt forces the nucleus to decide whether it has decayed or not" ...
Try this analogy on: You have a ball bouncing around in a box with an opening in it. It bounces around completely randomly. You know how big the ball is, how big the opening is, and how fast its moving around. From this you can calculate the average time it should take to find the opening, but you will never be able to caclulate exactly when it will find the opening.Originally posted by aviv
So what if we magically figure out the energy levels and all the properties of an unstable nucleus at a certain time (I know this is impossible but just for the sake or argument). Could we then predict the exact time of decay of that nucleus?
He understood it more than I do, probably, but, when someone thinks a complete theory is incomplete for the wrong reasons, then can you really say that that person understands it?Originally posted by jcsd
I think Einstein understood it, but he certainly never accepted it.
Doesn't the Bohm-DeBroglie interpretation have holes in it, like conservation problems?Originally posted by jcsd
... there are realist intrepretaions (e.g. Bohm's) where the partcile does have a postion before it's measured, ...
Originally posted by turin
He understood it more than I do, probably, but, when someone thinks a complete theory is incomplete for the wrong reasons, then can you really say that that person understands it?
Doesn't the Bohm-DeBroglie interpretation have holes in it, like conservation problems?
Originally posted by aviv
Thanks everyone. I still don't like the idea of a particle having no position until measured because if it has no certain position then how can it be in a certain position once measured, or to be measured? Same with a particle colliding, how can a particle collide in a certain position when it had no certain position before the collision? This is very interesting, I'm going to read about Bohm's interpretation.
Originally posted by jcsd
I were you I'd look at decohernce or Everett's/the many worlds interpretation as they give much more satisfactory answers than Bohm.