fawk3s
- 341
- 1
Think I am having a brainfart here, so I need a tad bit of help.
Sorry, imageshack rotated the image for some reason:
http://img690.imageshack.us/img690/5629/img1380as.jpg
(http://img690.imageshack.us/img690/5629/img1380as.jpg )
I can't really understand anymore when do we get the peak voltage? When the rotating magnet is the closest with its pole tip to the inductor, or when the tip of the magnet is 90 degrees to the pole, like in the picture?
It seemed like "common sense" that we get the peak voltage when its tip is closest to the inductor, but once I started thinking about it, I got confused when I noticed that when the tip of the magnet is nearing the inductor, the inductor creates a magnetic field that works against the change, which in return creates a certain direction voltage. Once the tip of the magnet reaches its closest point and starts moving away from the inductor, the inductor creates a magnetic field and a voltage that tries to preserve that same magnetic field. Which is pointed in the opposite direction to the voltage/magnetic field in the first situation.
It would mean that when the tip is closest to the inductor, the voltage is decreased to 0 at that instance, and after the tip passes, the voltage, and therefore the currect change direction.
Now I am not sure my logic is correct here, because I've always thought it was the opposite way. Is there a brainfart somewhere there in my logic? Would appreciate if someone could point it out.
Sorry, imageshack rotated the image for some reason:
http://img690.imageshack.us/img690/5629/img1380as.jpg
(http://img690.imageshack.us/img690/5629/img1380as.jpg )
I can't really understand anymore when do we get the peak voltage? When the rotating magnet is the closest with its pole tip to the inductor, or when the tip of the magnet is 90 degrees to the pole, like in the picture?
It seemed like "common sense" that we get the peak voltage when its tip is closest to the inductor, but once I started thinking about it, I got confused when I noticed that when the tip of the magnet is nearing the inductor, the inductor creates a magnetic field that works against the change, which in return creates a certain direction voltage. Once the tip of the magnet reaches its closest point and starts moving away from the inductor, the inductor creates a magnetic field and a voltage that tries to preserve that same magnetic field. Which is pointed in the opposite direction to the voltage/magnetic field in the first situation.
It would mean that when the tip is closest to the inductor, the voltage is decreased to 0 at that instance, and after the tip passes, the voltage, and therefore the currect change direction.
Now I am not sure my logic is correct here, because I've always thought it was the opposite way. Is there a brainfart somewhere there in my logic? Would appreciate if someone could point it out.
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