Where is the following function continuous

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the continuity of the function defined by an integral involving the arctangent function and an exponential decay term. The original poster is tasked with demonstrating the continuity of this function for values of y not equal to zero and its discontinuity at y equal to zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of the dominated convergence theorem and discuss the need for bounding functions in their arguments. The original poster attempts to construct a sequence approaching a non-zero value and considers the implications for continuity.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided hints regarding the application of the dominated convergence theorem and the need for a bounding function. There is an ongoing exploration of the continuity at y equal to zero, with no explicit consensus reached on the approach to take.

Contextual Notes

The original poster is working under the constraints of a homework assignment, which may impose specific requirements for the proof of continuity and discontinuity. The discussion includes the challenge of addressing the case when y equals zero.

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Homework Statement


[tex]f: [0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R}: y \mapsto \int_0^{+\infty} y \arctan x \exp(-xy)\,dx.[/tex]
Show that this function is continuous in [tex]y[/tex] if [tex]y \neq 0[/tex]
and discontinuous if [tex]y = 0[/tex]

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I just can't get started, any hint?
 
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Start by trying to simplify an expression for f(y+d)-f(y). Ultimately you want to show that for any epsilon>0, you can pick a delta so that |f(y+d)-f(y)|<epsilon for all d<delta.
 
Here is my try:
Choose a sequence [tex]y_n \in [0,+\infty )[/tex] such that [tex]y_n \to y (\neq 0)[/tex].
Define the function [tex]g_n(x)=y_n \arctan x e^{-xy_n}[/tex], then its limit is [tex]g(x)=y\arctan x e^{-xy}[/tex].
Note that [tex]|g_n(x)| \leq |y_n\arctan x|[/tex], it follows [tex]g_n[/tex] is integrable. Hence by dominated convergence thm we have
[tex]\lim f(y_n)=\lim \int g_n \to \int g = f(y)[/tex].

Am I right? Still no idea for the case [tex]y=0[/tex]
 
Last edited:
To use the dominated convergence theorem you need to find a function that bounds g_n for all n. In other words, this function can't have an n in it. Other than that you seem to be on the right track. The same idea should work for y=0.
 

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