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Why aren't Peking Man considered Heidelbergenssi?

  1. Feb 24, 2015 #1
    7) Why are peking and java man considered homo

    erectus, while the fossils of the same time period (600,000 BC) found

    in Europe are considered Heidelbergensis? According to wikipedia,

    peking man fossils had brain sizes from 1000 cc to about 1220 cc,

    well within the range of Heidebergensis.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 26, 2015 #2

    Evo

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    Staff: Mentor

    Hi Calpalned, sorry I couldn't reply earlier, I'm a bit swamped right now, but wanted to get you started. There have been differences of opinion over classification of older hominids. I'm going to start you off with an article that describes the revision in age, and hope to follow up shortly with more about what separates the species.

    Continued...

    http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/science/nature/7937351.stm
     
  4. Feb 26, 2015 #3
    No worries, I'm actually thankful to even have a reply. I realized that my question is quite similar to the one here https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/perhaps-they-are-all-the-same-species.799820/ , where I asked about why erectus, ergaster, heidelbergensis and antecessor, despite having the same basic skull shape (except for increasing brain size) are labeled as different species.
     
  5. Feb 26, 2015 #4

    Evo

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    Staff: Mentor

    They're good questions. It seems to come down to where specimens are found and slight differences.

    (See more below)

    http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/evolution/humans/humankind/k.html

    Wikipedia actually collects information from different sources on Peking man.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peking_Man
     
  6. Feb 26, 2015 #5
    I see... In my opinion, it is rather interesting that modern humans from Asia, Europe and Africa are all classified as the same species while homo erectus from those three continents are seperate... Anyway, thanks for the reply, I understand this concept better now.
     
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