Why Does a Block Accelerate Even When Forces Are Equal?

  • Thread starter Thread starter mr newtein
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Forces Mechanics
AI Thread Summary
When two blocks are connected by a string, pulling one block causes it to transmit force through the string, leading to acceleration. The force exerted by the string on the block is not equal to the force applied by the person, as not all of the applied force is transferred. In physics, the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration is defined by the equation F=ma, which explains why the block accelerates despite equal forces being applied. Additionally, real-world factors like friction can affect the motion, as frictional forces oppose the applied force. Understanding these dynamics clarifies why the block accelerates even when forces seem equal.
mr newtein
Messages
11
Reaction score
0
two blocks are connected by string if i pull a block,then block(it will transmit force) will also pull string then,string will also pull block (a& r pairs)forces on block are by me and by string of equal magnitude than why is block accelerating
 
Physics news on Phys.org
mr newtein said:
two blocks are connected by string if i pull a block,then block(it will transmit force) will also pull string then,string will also pull block (a& r pairs)forces on block are by me and by string of equal magnitude than why is block accelerating
The force from the string on the block is not necessarily equal to your force on the block.
 
common layman's usage is:

I apply a force on a block and it moves.

but for physics you need to think this way:

I apply a force (f=ma) on a block of mass m and it accelerates (no friction case).

in the real world with friction:

I apply a force (f=ma) on a block of mass m and it accelerates to some constant
speed because the frictional force increases with increasing speed and opposes the
force I am applying.
 
jedishrfu said:
common layman's usage is:

I apply a force on a block and it moves.

but for physics you need to think this way:

I apply a force (f=ma) on a block of mass m and it accelerates (no friction case).

in the real world with friction:

I apply a force (f=ma) on a block of mass m and it accelerates to some constant
speed because the frictional force increases with increasing speed and opposes the
force I am applying.




i am not getting it
 
nasu said:
The force from the string on the block is not necessarily equal to your force on the block.

why? it because,the block may not transferring all force i am applying.
 
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top