- #1
yosimba2000
- 206
- 9
So say a wave is described by Acos(Φ), completely real.
Then the to use Euler's Eq, we we say the wave is AeiΦ, which is expanded to Acos(Φ) + iAsin(Φ). We tell ourselves that we just ignore the imaginary part and only keep the real part.
And if intensity is |AeiΦ|2, which is (Acos(Φ) + iAsin(Φ)) * (Acos(Φ) - iAsin(Φ)), we get A2cos2(Φ) + A2sin2(Φ).
So why do we take the sin(Φ) part in the intensity result, instead of just taking the cos(Φ) part?
Then the to use Euler's Eq, we we say the wave is AeiΦ, which is expanded to Acos(Φ) + iAsin(Φ). We tell ourselves that we just ignore the imaginary part and only keep the real part.
And if intensity is |AeiΦ|2, which is (Acos(Φ) + iAsin(Φ)) * (Acos(Φ) - iAsin(Φ)), we get A2cos2(Φ) + A2sin2(Φ).
So why do we take the sin(Φ) part in the intensity result, instead of just taking the cos(Φ) part?