Why Does lim ( f(a + Δx) - f(a) ) / Δx → 0? Geometrical Meaning & More

  • Thread starter Thread starter Miike012
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Continuity
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of limits in calculus, specifically the limit of the difference quotient as Δx approaches zero. The original poster questions the geometric interpretation of this limit and its implications for continuous and discontinuous functions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand why the limit of the difference quotient approaches zero for continuous functions and what this means geometrically. They also explore the implications for discontinuous functions, particularly through the example of g(x) = 1/(x - a).

Discussion Status

Some participants provide clarifications regarding the geometric meaning of the limit and the conditions under which the limit exists. There is an acknowledgment that the discussion is focused on the case of continuous functions, with some exploration of the nature of discontinuities.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the original poster's understanding may be influenced by the specific definitions and conditions related to continuity and differentiability. There is mention of the potential for limits to exist even in cases of removable discontinuities, which adds complexity to the discussion.

Miike012
Messages
1,009
Reaction score
0
Why does the book say if f(x) is continuous at a then

lim ( f(a + Δx) - f(a) ) / Δx, that Δx will go to zero. What does that mean geometrically?
Δx→0

More importantly, why would Δx not approach zero if f(x) is not continuous at a?

Im guessing it has something to do with the slopes of the secant lines approaching a definite number therefore Δx will approach 0. However say we were given g(x) = 1/(x - a)

Then:
g'(a) = lim ( 1/(Δx) - 1/0 ) / Δx therefore not only is 1/0 not defined but 1/Δx does not have a limit near 0 in
Δx→0

this case so the limit as Δx → 0 does not exist.

Am I on to something or am I way off base?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
You should try to be a bit clearer in your posts as I'm having trouble figuring out exactly what you're saying/asking.

Geometrically, taking Δx→0 in your difference quotient corresponds to 'drawing' the secant line away from the curve until it becomes a tangent line at the desired point.

In regard to your function g(x)=1/(x - a), this function is not defined at a, thus evaluating its derivative at a makes no sense.
 
I will have to find exactly what the book said but it said something that if f(x) is continuous at a then delta x will go to zero.
 
Miike012 said:
Why does the book say if f(x) is continuous at a then

lim ( f(a + Δx) - f(a) ) / Δx, that Δx will go to zero. What does that mean geometrically?
Δx→0

More importantly, why would Δx not approach zero if f(x) is not continuous at a?
...

The book is only addressing the case in which f(x) is continuous at a. It's not saying anything about the case where f(x) is not continuous at a.

Furthermore, [itex]\displaystyle \lim_{\Delta x\to0}\frac{f(a+\Delta x)-f(a)}{\Delta x}[/itex] is a definition for the derivative of f(x) at x=a. This is only defined if f(x) is continuous at a.

This limit may or may not exist, even if f(x) is continuous at a.

In fact it is possible for this limit to exist if f(x) is not continuous at a, if the discontinuity is removable. But in this case this limit would not be the derivative of f.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K