Why Does the Taylor Series of exp(-x^2) at x = 0 Start with 1 - x^2?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the Taylor Series expansion of the function f(x) = exp(-x^2) at x = 0, specifically addressing why the series begins with the terms 1 - x^2. Participants explore the implications of derivatives at zero and the structure of the series.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states that the Taylor Series of f(x) = exp(-x^2) at x = 0 is 1 - x^2 and seeks clarification on this result.
  • Another participant notes that while f'(0) = 0, the second derivative f''(0) is not zero, implying its significance in the series expansion.
  • Several participants discuss the general formula for Taylor Series and suggest substituting x = -t^2 to derive the series for e^-t^2.
  • A participant explains that the Taylor expansion of exp(t) with t = -x^2 leads to the series representation, highlighting that the second derivative term contributes to the x^2 term, not x^4.
  • Another participant clarifies that the second derivative term's coefficient is derived from the definition of the Taylor series, which involves x^2 rather than x^4.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the relationship between the second derivative and the terms in the Taylor series, indicating that there is no consensus on the interpretation of these terms and their contributions to the series expansion.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight the distinction between using the basic definition of the Taylor series and substituting variables, which may lead to confusion regarding the presence of certain terms in the expansion.

cytochrome
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The Taylor Series of f(x) = exp(-x^2) at x = 0 is 1-x^2...

Why is this?

The formula for Taylor Series is f(x) = f(0) + (x/1!)(f'(0)) + (x^2/2!)(f''(0)) + ...

and f'(x) = -2x(exp(-x^2)) therefore f'(0) = 0?

Can someone please explain why it is 1-x^2?
 
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Although f'(0) = 0, yet f''(0) will NOT be zero.
 
The formula is (x^n)/n! (with the sigma crap in front)
0! is 1 and x^0 is 1

Just substitute x=-t^2 and you get the series for e^-t^2
 
HomogenousCow said:
The formula is (x^n)/n! (with the sigma crap in front)
0! is 1 and x^0 is 1

Just substitute x=-t^2 and you get the series for e^-t^2

Then why doesn't the second derivative term have an x^4?
 
Here's what HomogenousCow is trying to say. Consider the expansion of ##\exp(t)## where ##t=-x^2##. The Taylor expansion of ##\exp(t)## is $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{t^n}{n!},$$ so substituting gives you $$e^{-x^2}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-x^2)^n}{n!}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^{2n}}{n!}.$$

The second derivative term does not have an ##x^4## by its definition: Each term is given by ##\frac{f^{(n)}(0)x^n}{n!}## (for MacLaurin; for Taylor about ##c##, it's ##\frac{f^{(n)}(c)(x-c)^n}{n!}##). When you plug in 2, you get $$\frac{f''(0)x^2}{2!}.$$ In this case, ##f''(0)=-2##. This cancels with the ##2!## in the denominator, so you end up with ##1-x^2## as the first two nontrivial terms of the expansion.
 
Last edited:
cytochrome said:
Then why doesn't the second derivative term have an x^4?
It looks like you are trying to combine two different ways of finding the Taylor series of e^{-x^2}

1) Using the basic definition: the "x^2" term has coefficient f''(0)/2 so that the second derivative term, by definition, involves x^2, not x^4.

2) Replacing x in the Taylor's series for e^x with -x^2. In that case, the term that you get from the second derivative of e^x has x^4 but that has nothing to do with the second derivative of e^{-x^2}. That term comes from replacing x with -x^2 in the f'(0) x term of the Taylor series for e^x.
 

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