EL
Science Advisor
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AKG said:Let pi be the ith prime (so p1 = 2, p2 = 3, etc.). Then
1 = \prod _{i = 1} ^{\infty } p_i^0
This is unique since 1 is the only integer for which all the exponents of the primes are zeroes.
Yeah, it was the uniqueness which disturbed me, but it's pretty obvious...
