Why is Decoherence Needed in Quantum Mechanics?

[stevendaryl]

By my comment I wanted to say that you can't meaningfully speak about single outcome when you speak about interference.

Right. My point was that P_{AC} = P_{AB_1C}P_{AB_2C} + 2 Re(\psi^*_{AB_1C} \psi_{AB_2C}, where B_1 and B_2 are alternative intermediate states. If you repeat the experiment many many times of starting in state A and checking if the final state is C, then you will be able to observe the second interference term. No single experiment can show it, of course (well, unless it makes P_{AC} zero, which sometimes happens).

 

[stevendaryl]

I don't see that we are talking about different things.
Look, if you have two ensembles of particles where one ensemble is represented by superposition of coherent states and the other one is represented by mixture. How you can tell apart two ensembles by observation? In first case you have interference and in second you don't.

That's true. But the evolution operator evolves pure states into pure states. So the issue for decoherence is: why in some circumstances does a pure state seem to become a mixed state?

 

[zonde]

Right. My point was that P_{AC} = P_{AB_1C}P_{AB_2C} + 2 Re(\psi^*_{AB_1C} \psi_{AB_2C}, where B_1 and B_2 are alternative intermediate states. If you repeat the experiment many many times of starting in state A and checking if the final state is C, then you will be able to observe the second interference term. No single experiment can show it, of course (well, unless it makes P_{AC} zero, which sometimes happens).

No, it's not about repeating experiment. Look, Mach–Zehnder interferometer has two outputs and you can't make anything like Mach–Zehnder interferometer with single output.

 

[stevendaryl]

No, it's not about repeating experiment.

I'm sorry, I misunderstood your "single outcome". You mean multiple measurements of a single event, rather than multiple events?

 

[stevendaryl]

No, it's not about repeating experiment. Look, Mach–Zehnder interferometer has two outputs and you can't make anything like Mach–Zehnder interferometer with single output.

Okay, I refreshed my memory about what that device does (by looking it up in Wikipedia). But I don't understand what point you are making about it.

 

[Ilja]

That's true. But the evolution operator evolves pure states into pure states. So the issue for decoherence is: why in some circumstances does a pure state seem to become a mixed state?

This is not the issue of decoherence. For decoherence, a pure state remains a pure state. The mixed state appears if one ignores the environment, and considers the effective state of the subsystem. Purely pragmatical, the question considered by decoherence is, given the system, and the environment (their subdivision defined by some actual situation) how long it takes until the interaction of the subsystem with the environment was strong enough to lead to a mixed states if one considers the projection of the whole system to the subsystem.

 

[stevendaryl]

This is not the issue of decoherence. For decoherence, a pure state remains a pure state.

Yes, but I said "seems to".

The mixed state appears if one ignores the environment, and considers the effective state of the subsystem. Purely pragmatical, the question considered by decoherence is, given the system, and the environment (their subdivision defined by some actual situation) how long it takes until the interaction of the subsystem with the environment was strong enough to lead to a mixed states if one considers the projection of the whole system to the subsystem.

 

[zonde]

Okay, I refreshed my memory about what that device does (by looking it up in Wikipedia). But I don't understand what point you are making about it.

I tried to make a point that in order to observe interference we would have to subject two alternative states to a setup similar to Mach–Zehnder interferometer where there are at least two outputs and both states can appear on either output. Say a dead cat and living cat is subjected to the some procedure that can kill/resurrect or leave intact either cat.

But it was minor point and I will try to get back on subject.
If two intermediate alternative states are made/become distinguishable then they do not produce interference and we say that they are no longer coherent.
This process is called decoherence.
And two states become distinguishable when they are undergoing interactions asymmetrically, right?

 

[lucas_]

This is not the issue of decoherence. For decoherence, a pure state remains a pure state. The mixed state appears if one ignores the environment, and considers the effective state of the subsystem. Purely pragmatical, the question considered by decoherence is, given the system, and the environment (their subdivision defined by some actual situation) how long it takes until the interaction of the subsystem with the environment was strong enough to lead to a mixed states if one considers the projection of the whole system to the subsystem.

Stevendaryl, If one just considers the effect state of the subsystem without the born rule, can you still call it mixed state? Because it seems some people call it mixed state even without born rule by simply considering the state of the subsystem (such as Iija above).

 

[stevendaryl]

If two intermediate alternative states are made/become distinguishable then they do not produce interference and we say that they are no longer coherent.
This process is called decoherence. And two states become distinguishable when they are undergoing interactions asymmetrically, right?

Yes. The clearest case is when there is a permanent record of which choice was made: A dot on a photographic plate, for example.

 

[stevendaryl]

Stevendaryl, If one just considers the effect state of the subsystem without the born rule, can you still call it mixed state? Because it seems some people call it mixed state even without born rule by simply considering the state of the subsystem (such as Iija above).

Well, it seems to me that the mathematical treatment of mixed states already assumes the Born rule, indirectly.

 

[zonde]

I think I got idea about decoherence using example of double-slit experiment.
Say we are performing double slit experiment with buckyballs. Buckyball going trough first or second slit we can describe as states A and B. Then we can write superposition as |A\rangle\pm|B\rangle where + or - depends on position of detector.
If we illuminate buckyball after the slits with light of short enough wavelength combined buckyball and photon superposition can be written as |A\rangle|P_A\rangle\pm|B\rangle|P_B\rangle so that interference is still observable if we somehow observe buckyball and photon together. But if we observe buckyball alone we get no interference (as there is no certain phase in complex plain for two states) and it is represented by product state |A\rangle\otimes|B\rangle

 

[zonde]

I would like to return to that stevendaryl's post as it perfectly illustrates my confusion with or even objection to decoherence as measurement explanation:

I have a complaint about the claim "We see that [the wavefunctions of] chairs and tables are collapsed". It seems obvious that it's true, but think about what it would mean to be otherwise.

In quantum mechanics, the behavior of a superposition (or mixture--there is a technical difference which isn't important here) is completely determined by the behavior of the corresponding pure states. Suppose you set things up so that there is a consequence of being in one state or another:

1. If the system is in state |A\rangle, then consequence C_A happens.
2. If the system is in state |B\rangle, then consequence C_B happens.

Then if the consequence itself is governed by quantum-mechanical laws, then we conclude:

If the system is in a superposition/mixture of states |A\rangle and |B\rangle, then the consequence will be a superposition/mixture of C_A and C_B​

So how does this apply to tables and chairs? Well, suppose you have a folding chair, and for simplicity, we consider two states, either "open" or "folded". So you take a notebook and walk into the room where the chair is, resolved to record what you see:

1. If it is open, you write "open".
2. If it is folded, you write "folded".
3. If it is in a superposition or mixture of these two states, you write "both"

Well, according to QM if you yourself are governed by quantum mechanics, then you'll never write "both". Instead, what will happen is:

1. If it is open, afterward the notebook will contain the word "open"
2. If it is folded, afterward the notebook will contain the word "folded"
3. If it is in a superposition or mixture, afterward the notebook will be in a superposition or mixture of having the word "open" and having the word "folded"

There is no possibility of your writing the word "both" in the notebook (at least not if we assume that you always write "open" if it's open, and "folded" if it's folded)

Another way to say it is that the three possible consequences: write "open", write "folded", write "both" are contradictory; if the first two happen, then the third will never happen.

Note: this is assuming that you yourself are governed by quantum mechanical laws. Some interpretations of quantum mechanics treat observers as special cases. But in these interpretations, observing the chair causes its wavefunction to "collapse". So you wouldn't write "both" in that interpretation, either.

For example I can read here http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph?0312059 motivation for decoherence as measurement explanation:
"A book has never been ever observed to be in a state of being both “here” and “there” (i.e., to be in a superposition of macroscopically distinguishable positions), nor does a Schr¨odinger cat that is a superposition of being alive and dead bear much resemblence to reality as we perceive it. The problem is, then, how to reconcile the vastness of the Hilbert space of possible states with the observation of a comparatively few “classical” macrosopic states, defined by having a small number of determinate and robust properties such as position and momentum. Why does the world appear classical to us, in spite of its supposed underlying quantum nature, which would, in principle, allow for arbitrary superpositions?"

Fine, decoherence explains why I would not observe interference. But even with interference (say in buckyball double-slit) world seems fairly classical.

So the measurement problem as I see it is like this: Superposition describes combination of probability amplitudes, but we do not observe probability amplitudes instead we observe individual clicks or classical amplitudes. And I would say that measurement problem is that conversion from probability amplitude to individual events.

 

[craigi]

I would like to return to that stevendaryl's post as it perfectly illustrates my confusion with or even objection to decoherence as measurement explanation:For example I can read here http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph?0312059 motivation for decoherence as measurement explanation:
"A book has never been ever observed to be in a state of being both “here” and “there” (i.e., to be in a superposition of macroscopically distinguishable positions), nor does a Schr¨odinger cat that is a superposition of being alive and dead bear much resemblence to reality as we perceive it. The problem is, then, how to reconcile the vastness of the Hilbert space of possible states with the observation of a comparatively few “classical” macrosopic states, defined by having a small number of determinate and robust properties such as position and momentum. Why does the world appear classical to us, in spite of its supposed underlying quantum nature, which would, in principle, allow for arbitrary superpositions?"

Fine, decoherence explains why I would not observe interference. But even with interference (say in buckyball double-slit) world seems fairly classical.

So the measurement problem as I see it is like this: Superposition describes combination of probability amplitudes, but we do not observe probability amplitudes instead we observe individual clicks or classical amplitudes. And I would say that measurement problem is that conversion from probability amplitude to individual events.

Pretty much. More correctly the Measurement Problem refers to the unanswered question from the CI about the missing mechanism for wavefunction collapse.

Later Everett noticed that wavefunction collapse was a completely unrequired additional axiom and instead proposed that the observed state is relative to the observer state.

 

[zonde]

Pretty much. More correctly the Measurement Problem refers to the unanswered question from the CI about the missing mechanism for wavefunction collapse.

As I understand, wavefunction collapse originally referred to single quantum system and the outcome of collapse was single eigenstate of operator. In that case it mostly covers what I had on mind.
But in context of decoherence wave function collapse have somehow morphed into something else. In particular how superposition of states is converted into density matrix. So it describes ensembles rather than individual systems.

 

[lucas_]

In preferred basis, note the basis is a set of vectors.. and particular basis is chosen based on predictability sieve. Do you have any idea how to do experiments in which you can adjust preferred basis in position such that for example a marble can be made to disappear at a certain position and reappear elsewhere? Shielding from microwave radiation can be done according to Mr. Hobba and the marble can be frozen to remove thermal agitations so repreparat. Then if you can change the preferred basis, then the marble can

I have a complaint about the claim "We see that [the wavefunctions of] chairs and tables are collapsed". It seems obvious that it's true, but think about what it would mean to be otherwise.

In quantum mechanics, the behavior of a superposition (or mixture--there is a technical difference which isn't important here) is completely determined by the behavior of the corresponding pure states. Suppose you set things up so that there is a consequence of being in one state or another:

1. If the system is in state |A\rangle, then consequence C_A happens.
2. If the system is in state |B\rangle, then consequence C_B happens.

Then if the consequence itself is governed by quantum-mechanical laws, then we conclude:

If the system is in a superposition/mixture of states |A\rangle and |B\rangle, then the consequence will be a superposition/mixture of C_A and C_B​

So how does this apply to tables and chairs? Well, suppose you have a folding chair, and for simplicity, we consider two states, either "open" or "folded". So you take a notebook and walk into the room where the chair is, resolved to record what you see:

1. If it is open, you write "open".
2. If it is folded, you write "folded".
3. If it is in a superposition or mixture of these two states, you write "both"

Well, according to QM if you yourself are governed by quantum mechanics, then you'll never write "both". Instead, what will happen is:

1. If it is open, afterward the notebook will contain the word "open"
2. If it is folded, afterward the notebook will contain the word "folded"
3. If it is in a superposition or mixture, afterward the notebook will be in a superposition or mixture of having the word "open" and having the word "folded"

There is no possibility of your writing the word "both" in the notebook (at least not if we assume that you always write "open" if it's open, and "folded" if it's folded)

Another way to say it is that the three possible consequences: write "open", write "folded", write "both" are contradictory; if the first two happen, then the third will never happen.

Note: this is assuming that you yourself are governed by quantum mechanical laws. Some interpretations of quantum mechanics treat observers as special cases. But in these interpretations, observing the chair causes its wavefunction to "collapse". So you wouldn't write "both" in that interpretation, either.

In preferred basis, note the basis is a set of vectors.. and particular basis is chosen based on predictability sieve. Do you have any idea how to do experiments in which you can adjust preferred basis in position such that for example a marble can be made to disappear at a certain position and reappear elsewhere? Shielding from microwave radiation can be done according to Mr. Hobba and the marble can be frozen to remove thermal agitations so repreparation of preferred basis can be theoretically possible. Any idea how?

 

[stevendaryl]

In preferred basis, note the basis is a set of vectors.. and particular basis is chosen based on predictability sieve. Do you have any idea how to do experiments in which you can adjust preferred basis in position such that for example a marble can be made to disappear at a certain position and reappear elsewhere? Shielding from microwave radiation can be done according to Mr. Hobba and the marble can be frozen to remove thermal agitations so repreparation of preferred basis can be theoretically possible. Any idea how?

For macroscopic objects, in general, the only basis that is feasible to use is the one in which the objects have definite positions at all times (at least up to some trivial uncertainty).

 

[lucas_]

For macroscopic objects, in general, the only basis that is feasible to use is the one in which the objects have definite positions at all times (at least up to some trivial uncertainty).

If you can shield it from CMBR and make it near absolute zero.. why can't you make the position basis jump from say 0.1 to 0.5 x coordinate and make the macroscopic object jumpy? What prevent it? I'm wondering also because it seems some of my food in my very cold metal freezer seems to change position or disappear when I got home.

 

[stevendaryl]

If you can shield it from CMBR and make it near absolute zero.. why can't you make the position basis jump from say 0.1 to 0.5 x coordinate and make the macroscopic object jumpy? What prevent it? I'm wondering also because it seems some of my food in my very cold metal freezer seems to change position or disappear when I got home.

You're right, the sort of measures you're talking about (isolating the system, reducing its temperature) allow for larger objects to be put into coherent superpositions. I think there is a limit though. I'm not sure what the largest object for which superpositions have been observed, but I would guess it would be the size of a molecule.

 

[Nugatory]

why can't you make the position basis jump from say 0.1 to 0.5 x coordinate and make the macroscopic object jumpy?

You're asking about a marble. A marble is not a point particle described by a wave function $\psi(x)$ such that the probability of finding it at position $x$ is given by $|\psi(x)|^2$. Instead, a marble is made up of about $5\times{10}^{22}$ molecules of silicon dioxide (I get that number by assuming that the marble is solid glass, weighs about ten grams, and rounding off enough to do the arithmetic in my head) and its wave function is the product of the product of the wave functions of each of these individual particles in the position basis.

What is the chance of all of these molecules all randomly jumping in the same direction by the same amount at the same time? You are as likely to see a scrambled egg unscramble itself and separate back into white and yolk as it is stirred.

This situation really isn't that different from the way that in classical mechanics the random movements of gas molecules average out in such a way that (for example) any reasonably-sized volume of gas obeys Boyle's Law. In this case, the randomness that you're considering is quantum mechanical in origin, but it still averages out the same way.

Thus stevendaryl's point that "in general, the only basis that is feasible to use is the one in which the objects have definite positions at all times (at least up to some trivial uncertainty)".

some of my food in my very cold metal freezer seems to change position or disappear when I got home.

Better put a smiley next to that... or you'll find someone taking it seriously.

 

[craigi]

As I understand, wavefunction collapse originally referred to single quantum system and the outcome of collapse was single eigenstate of operator. In that case it mostly covers what I had on mind.
But in context of decoherence wave function collapse have somehow morphed into something else. In particular how superposition of states is converted into density matrix. So it describes ensembles rather than individual systems.

I like to divide what you're talking about here into two parts.

Firstly, is the question of why an entirely deterministic theory only allows us to give probabilistic predictions of possible outcomes. From a MWI perspective, the answer is trivial, in that measurement involves splitting into separate worlds and the probabilities of QM reflect that we find ourselves in only one of those.

Secondly, is question of why we see the part of the Hilbert space that we do as real and the rest as other possible futures. This is a fascinating discussion in its own right, but I'm not touching it on this forum. It causes too much upset and the forum isn't equipped to moderate such discussion. Here, just accept it axiomatically.

 

[lucas_]

You're asking about a marble. A marble is not a point particle described by a wave function $\psi(x)$ such that the probability of finding it at position $x$ is given by $|\psi(x)|^2$. Instead, a marble is made up of about $5\times{10}^{22}$ molecules of silicon dioxide (I get that number by assuming that the marble is solid glass, weighs about ten grams, and rounding off enough to do the arithmetic in my head) and its wave function is the product of the product of the wave functions of each of these individual particles in the position basis.

I thought the preferred basis was defined over the whole classical object. Are you sure it's for each individual particles? But if it is.. the entire object won't jab into coincidental positions.. for example the cat eye would in the foot. Can anyone else confirm if preferred basis is for the whole macroscopic object or individual particle?

What is the chance of all of these molecules all randomly jumping in the same direction by the same amount at the same time? You are as likely to see a scrambled egg unscramble itself and separate back into white and yolk as it is stirred.

This situation really isn't that different from the way that in classical mechanics the random movements of gas molecules average out in such a way that (for example) any reasonably-sized volume of gas obeys Boyle's Law. In this case, the randomness that you're considering is quantum mechanical in origin, but it still averages out the same way.

Thus stevendaryl's point that "in general, the only basis that is feasible to use is the one in which the objects have definite positions at all times (at least up to some trivial uncertainty)".Better put a smiley next to that... or you'll find someone taking it seriously.

I think it's my sister taking some of my food to feed the cat :(

 

[zonde]

Firstly, is the question of why an entirely deterministic theory only allows us to give probabilistic predictions of possible outcomes.

Answer is simple - because the theory is not entirely deterministic.It contains Born rule.

From a MWI perspective, the answer is trivial, in that measurement involves splitting into separate worlds and the probabilities of QM reflect that we find ourselves in only one of those.

MWI is a theory that is non local (split happens non locally), non realistic (it lives in some sort of hyper reality), non deterministic (our past does not form a causal chain) that can't be falsified. So I don't really care about the answers it gives. Sorry.

 

[stevendaryl]

Answer is simple - because the theory is not entirely deterministic.It contains Born rule.

But there is a certain sense in which that rule is not understood, physically. In classical probability, a probability is either interpreted as an uncertainty about the facts of the present (for example, we treat thermodynamics probabilistically because we don't know the precise positions and velocities of all 10^{whatever} particles), or it's interpreted as uncertainty about future choices (a stochastic process). Both options lead to problems for QM. The first option, that QM probability reflects lack of information about the detailed current state, is made awkward by Bell's theorem--there can't be such "hidden variables" unless there are nonlocal interactions. The second option, which is that QM probability reflects a stochastic process, is also difficult to make sense of, for two reasons:

1. The "choice" made by such a stochastic process would necessarily be nonlocal (again, according to Bell's theorem).
2. If you seriously consider stochastic evolution to be real, then that's in contradiction to the evolution according to Schrodinger's equation. So that would mean two kinds of evolution. There is no theory of how that could work--what deterrmines whether the stochastic process or the unitary, smooth evolution takes place. There are ad hoc suggestions, such as "consciousness collapses the wave function", but those are too fuzzy to actually be part of a proper scientific theory.

To me, there are inherent problems with interpreting the Born rule in light of smooth deterministic evolution of the wave function, regardless of whether you do that interpretation from within a MWI model or some other model.

 

[zonde]

But there is a certain sense in which that rule is not understood, physically. In classical probability, a probability is either interpreted as an uncertainty about the facts of the present (for example, we treat thermodynamics probabilistically because we don't know the precise positions and velocities of all 10^{whatever} particles), or it's interpreted as uncertainty about future choices (a stochastic process). Both options lead to problems for QM. The first option, that QM probability reflects lack of information about the detailed current state, is made awkward by Bell's theorem--there can't be such "hidden variables" unless there are nonlocal interactions. The second option, which is that QM probability reflects a stochastic process, is also difficult to make sense of, for two reasons:

1. The "choice" made by such a stochastic process would necessarily be nonlocal (again, according to Bell's theorem).
2. If you seriously consider stochastic evolution to be real, then that's in contradiction to the evolution according to Schrodinger's equation. So that would mean two kinds of evolution. There is no theory of how that could work--what deterrmines whether the stochastic process or the unitary, smooth evolution takes place. There are ad hoc suggestions, such as "consciousness collapses the wave function", but those are too fuzzy to actually be part of a proper scientific theory.

There is no way how to get rid of nonlocality in any realistic model.
Unless of course you consider possibility that QM have overlooked two different photon-matter interaction aspects that can create two different loopholes in photon Bell tests.

To me, there are inherent problems with interpreting the Born rule in light of smooth deterministic evolution of the wave function, regardless of whether you do that interpretation from within a MWI model or some other model.

So, what is your approach to this problem?

 

[stevendaryl]

There is no way how to get rid of nonlocality in any realistic model.

And there is no very satisfactiory "non-realistic" model, either.

So, what is your approach to this problem?

I don't have an answer. But I object to people picking on MWI, because the difficulties with MWI are difficulties with QM, PERIOD. All the alternatives are unpalatable for various reasons.

 

[craigi]

I don't have an answer. But I object to people picking on MWI, because the difficulties with MWI are difficulties with QM, PERIOD. All the alternatives are unpalatable for various reasons.

Here's an answer:
http://arxiv.org/pdf/1405.7907v3.pdf
I'd recommend reading the Tegmark, Aguire paper first.

It may just be that quantum theory can't be a complete theory within our classical view of the cosmological horizon.

Alternatively, the Born rule can be derived under the Quantum Bayesian interpretation.

 

[bhobba]

Alternatively, the Born rule can be derived under the Quantum Bayesian interpretation.

Its fundamental basis is non-contextuality so you can apply Gleason. Quantum Bayesianism won't allow you to bypass that - in fact it specifically makes that assumption. Proponents of it like Fuchs use augments very similar to post 137 of the following thread:
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/the-born-rule-in-many-worlds.763139/page-7

Thanks
Bill

 

[lucas_]

stevendaryl and the rest, there is a very obvious solution to the measurement problem.. it was proposed many decades ago by Bohm. It basically states:

Explicit Order: Collapsed
Implicate Order: Uncollapsed.. superposition..

This is different from Many Worlds, Copenhagen, Bohmian Mechanics, etc.

Why is this not taken seriously? Bohm said everything comes from Implicate Order. When it exfold, collapse occurs. Before collapse, everything is in the implicate order. This is a good physical picture to QM in general and wave function collapse in particular. What is the flaw in Bohm belief? What papers written about this? If none, why none? This is not any more bizarre than Many Worlds. Come to think of it.

 

[craigi]

stevendaryl and the rest, there is a very obvious solution to the measurement problem.. it was proposed many decades ago by Bohm. It basically states:

Explicit Order: Collapsed
Implicate Order: Uncollapsed.. superposition..

This is different from Many Worlds, Copenhagen, Bohmian Mechanics, etc.

Why is this not taken seriously? Bohm said everything comes from Implicate Order. When it exfold, collapse occurs. Before collapse, everything is in the implicate order. This is a good physical picture to QM in general and wave function collapse in particular. What is the flaw in Bohm belief? What papers written about this? If none, why none? This is not any more bizarre than Many Worlds. Come to think of it.

There's two main reasons that it is unpalateable to physicists, firstly it opposes reductionism, secondly it assigns consciousness a special role.

 

[zonde]

Still about decoherence. I am trying to sort out individual system/ensemble view of coherence.

We could think that coherence is ensemble property because in order to observe interference all clicks have to contribute to the same interference pattern. But this only says that complex phase difference is fixed between the states in superposition. And if state meaningfully describes single particle then any individual click can be viewed as physically independent and then presence of interference pattern say nothing about relations present in ensemble.
But it seems to me that homodyne detection shows something more in respect to my question. A coherent state shows a shift of the bump in Wigner function (http://www.iqst.ca/quantech/wiggalery.php). As Wigner function is reconstructed from many measurements from two ensembles it means there should be relations within ensembles in order to see asymmetric changes in picture. And so coherence should be about relations within ensemble.

So does it make sense to say that Wigner function demonstrates relations within ensemble and not just relations in statistical collection physically independent events?

 

[zonde]

I have looked up two sources for better understanding of decoherence.
First was Ballentine book. In chapter 9.3 "The Interpretation of a State Vector" he argues against interpretation of state vector as description of individual system.
If I understand correctly, "decoherence as a measurement" hypothesis is covered in his option (iii):
"The reduction (9.9) is caused by the environment, the “environment” being defined as the rest of the universe other than (I) and (II)."
Then he gives very brief argument that combination of two previous arguments defeats this hypothesis as well. And the two arguments are that:
- if we include disturbance from the start we can't create any difference form standard equations;
- if we include disturbance at any later time (when observation is made) we arrive at unfruitful speculations about the place of that later time.

Interesting thing to note was that Ballentine just as well believes that macroscopic superposition is in conflict with observations:
"Thus the interpretation of (9.8) as a description of an individual system is in conflict with observation."And the second one is Hooft's paper "Quantum Mechanics from Classical Logic" http://iopscience.iop.org/1742-6596/361/1/012024
For a start Hooft seems to experess different viewpoint about problem of superposition:
"Although quantum mechanics is generally considered to be fundamentally incompatible with classical logic, it is argued here that the gap is not as great as it seems."
Then as I understand he argues that decoherence leads to hidden variable theory if environment is included in initial state:
"If we do not know the initial state with infinite accuracy then we won’t be able to predict the final state any better than that. The probabilistic distribution at t = 0 determines the probabilistic distribution at all later times."
Any comments?
And in particular about this Hooft's statement "quantum mechanics is generally considered to be fundamentally incompatible with classical logic". Could it be the real problem behind macroscopic superposition?

 

[bhobba]

The only barriere is the fact that Zurek and other authors mention decoherence time so often, like superpositions occur all the time and they get destroyed which isn't the same like the cat that is decohered since its birth and alive. What do they mean really? I'm sure you have insight.

Remember when I mentioned that if a quantum object has definite position it will spread. When that happens it will then become entangled with things and decohere again. Its a continuous process that happens very fast.

Zureck's approach is different to the standard approach. He takes the QM state as given and develops observations by decoherene. I am not expert in it enough to go beyond that.

Thanks
Bill