kof9595995
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Why can't we just use the QM operator directly,but have to map it to a new object? You mean the 1-particle state in QFT is different from the 1- particle state in QM? How?
kof9595995 said:Why can't we just use the QM operator directly,but have to map it to a new object? You mean the 1-particle state in QFT is different from the 1- particle state in QM? How?
I used this prescription and try to calculate commutator [x,p], but it seems to lead me nowhere:A. Neumaier said:Operators A(p,q) on the 1-particle Hilbert space extend to corresponding field operators by means of the functor that maps A to a bilinear form N(A) in the c/a operators, which in the simplest case of a scalar field takes the form
N(A)=\int dp a^*(p)A(p,q)a(p).
[for some unknown reason, the dp prints as dx on my screen. Note:q is the differential operator in the momentum representation, not a variable.]
kof9595995 said:I used this prescription and try to calculate commutator [x,p], (Sorry, I know it looks horribly tedious)