Rasalhague
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"All but finitely many" theorem
Let S be a set with cardinality |S|=\aleph_0. Let A,B \subseteq S. Let S\backslash A and S\backslash B be finite. Then A \cap B \neq \varnothing.
How can this be shown? I came across it as an assumption in a proof that a sequence in a metric space can converge to at most one limit.
Let S be a set with cardinality |S|=\aleph_0. Let A,B \subseteq S. Let S\backslash A and S\backslash B be finite. Then A \cap B \neq \varnothing.
How can this be shown? I came across it as an assumption in a proof that a sequence in a metric space can converge to at most one limit.