Why is there a 2 in this fraction problem?

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The discussion revolves around the fraction problem 8 5/6 - 1 1/3, where confusion arises over converting 1/3 to 2/6. The conversion is explained as multiplying both the numerator and denominator of 1/3 by 2, resulting in an equivalent fraction. This adjustment allows for easier subtraction by matching the denominators of the fractions involved. The original problem remains 8 5/6 - 1 1/3, and the answer is confirmed as 7 1/2. The key takeaway is that changing 1/3 to 2/6 does not alter its value, facilitating the calculation.
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I need some help with this fraction problem. 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 you Need to rewrite the problem as 8 5/6 - 1 2/3 where did the two come from ?
 
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Can you show the whole text of this problem and supposed solution?
 
The problem is 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 the answer is 8 5/6 - 1 2/6 answer 7 1/2 I just want to know how they got the 2 in 2/6
 
jim1174 said:
The problem is 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 the answer is 8 5/6 - 1 2/3 answer 7 1/2
The expression is either 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 or 8 5/6 - 1 2/3. The two are not the same.

Since the answer is 7 1/2, the problem must have been 8 5/6 - 1 1/3. The only explanation for 8 5/6 - 1 2/3 is that it's a typo.

Edit: Jim, I didn't notice that you revised what you wrote in your later post. 1 1/3 is the same as 1 2/6.
 
They changed 1/3 to 2/6 by multiplying the top and bottom of the fraction 1/3 by the number 2.
 
The question is 8 5/6 - 1 1/3 you are supposed to re write the problem as 8 5/6 - 1 2/6 what I want to know is when they changed the 1/3 to 2/6 where did the two come from
 
You can multiply the top of a fraction by any number so long as you multiply the bottom of that fraction by the same AND THIS DOESN'T CHANGE THE VALUE of that fraction.

So 1/3 is equivalent to 2/6 in all regards.

QUESTION: Would you prefer 1 slice of a pie after the pie was cut up into 3 equal pieces, or
would you prefer 2 slices of the same pie after it had been cut into 6 pieces?

ANS: there is no difference!

The decision to convert the denominator into a 6 was so that it matched the denominator of the first fraction in the problem.
 
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If I may propose a different way of seeing it: any number multiplied by 1 is the same number. Therefore, you can always multiply any fraction by ##n/n## (provided ##n## is not zero!):

$$
\frac{1}{3} = \frac{1}{3} \times 1 = \frac{1}{3} \times \frac{2}{2} = \frac{2}{6}
$$
 

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