Why is there a correlation between gravitational and magnetic fields?

[p1l0t]

A gravitational field and a magnetic field both decrease in strength at the distance squared. They are two totally different forces so why the correlation?

 

[InvalidID]

I'm actually quite interested in the answer to this question.

I think it has to do with: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_everything and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_Model

 

[davenn]

no its not that complex -- Invalid ID ;)

read all about it here on wiki
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse-square_law

its also the same for an E-M wave ( light, radiowave )

Dave

 

[p1l0t]

So is it fair to say that divergence is what they have in common?

 

[mfb]

The vanishing divergence without sources in the common reason for both inverse square laws, indeed.
To have a magnetic field decreasing as inverse square law, you would need (unobserved) magnetic monopoles, however. It is easier with electric fields.