Why Is Velocity in Spherical Coordinates Given by This Equation?

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Printed problem 16: a particle moves in a plane under a central force F = (1/r^2)(1 - (r'^2 - 2r r'')/c^2), with a request to find the generalized potential and the Lagrangian.
Typeset equations: potential U = 1/r + r-dot^2/(c^2 r); Lagrangian L = T - U; kinetic energy T = (1/2)m(r-dot^2 + r^2 theta-dot^2); and L = (1/2)m(r-dot^2 + r^2 theta-dot^2) - (1/r)(1 + r-dot^2/c^2).


Why the velocity in spherical coordinates equal to ## v^2 = v \dot{} v = \dot{r}^2 + \dot{r}^2\dot{\theta}^2##

maybe

## v^2 = v \dot{} v = (\hat{ \theta } \dot{ \theta } r +\hat{r} \dot{r} + \hat{ \phi } \dot{\phi } r \sin{ \theta}) \dot{} (\hat{ \theta } \dot{ \theta } r +\hat{r} \dot{r} + \hat{ \phi } \dot{\phi } r \sin{ \theta}) = \dot{\theta}^2 r^2 + \dot{r}^2 + r^2 \dot{\phi}^2 \sin^2{\theta} ##

[Moderator's note: Moved from a technical forum and thus no template.]
 
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The movement is in a plane, so they've picked coordinates such that the plane is the equatorial plane of the coordinates - hence ##\dot{\phi}=0##.

Incidentally, it should be ##r^2{\dot{\theta}}^2## in your first expression. I presume that's just a typo since it's correct in the text and your next expression.
 
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The question about why the velocity in spherical coordinates takes the form it does has been answered, so any further discussion of this problem should be in a new thread in the homework forums.

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