Why Is Zero Plural?

  • Thread starter skeptic2
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I asked a bunch of my friends, but none were able to help. Then I asked my wife and she was. Imagine that, she's not even a native speaker.
 
Chi Meson
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Why is zero plural?
Don't you mean "Why are zero plural"? Of course you don't.

When we say "there are zero things here" we are vulgarizing the correct phrase "the number of those things that are here is zero."

In general, the absence of a thing is the absence of one of those things; "one of those things" is singular.

"There is not one of those things here."
"There is none of those things here."
"There is nothing here."

So you should say "I have no item on my agenda"; but in conversation, we are allowed to make things "sound better than correct," so we do say "I have no items on my agenda." This suggests the lack of the expected "many things."

Notice the obvious singular: "I have nothing on my agenda."
"nothing" = "no thing" = "zero thing"
russ watters said:
Apparently, the real problem here is that we are speaking English
Agree
 
Last edited:

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