- #1
Arijun
- 21
- 1
If B~1/r2, then if we have a simple loop, B near the inner edge of the loop will be infinite (or close to it). Why then, would our flux not be infinite?
I also get infinity if I take
∫ ∇ X A *da =∫B*da =∫(closed)A*dl
Since A ~1/r and r~0 at the limit of our surface integral.
I know I am missing something simple here, help! If possible, show where I'm wrong in both of my attempts.
I also get infinity if I take
∫ ∇ X A *da =∫B*da =∫(closed)A*dl
Since A ~1/r and r~0 at the limit of our surface integral.
I know I am missing something simple here, help! If possible, show where I'm wrong in both of my attempts.