mfb said:
It is also not adjusted for inflation as far as I can see.
The data would be pretty much useless if not inflation adjusted. I'll leave it to you to figure out if it is or isn't, since you posted it. If it's not inflation adjusted, please provide data that is actually useful.
Rising amounts of money spent on drugs doesn't directly imply something is wrong.
Perhaps, but then we're left to choose a growth threshold upon which to base "wrong". How do you pick? Personally, I would consider a doubling of a price of anything over a 15 year period to be a problem. At the very least, you must recognize it is unsustainable.
The comparison between countries is more interesting.
It is if you want one country to "win" and another to "lose" in a comparison. But it is less helpful if the end goal is to prevent drug (and beyond that, healthcare) costs to crush our respective economies.
That would be a big step forward already (a factor 2).
I said "at best" -- this assumes that the rises over the past 20 years are due to the basic model difference, and since the US
didn't have a European style system in place in 1995 that we suddenly got rid of, that would seem unlikely.
More people got access to somewhat affordable healthcare. The US increased the quality of the healthcare to get closer to the other countries. If they would have had that before, the US cost would have been higher before 2014 already.
So, moving closer to a European model
increased costs, yet at the same time you are claiming moving toward a European model will
decrease costs? Since your data obviously contradicts your thesis, please explain what reason you have for believing your thesis could be true. Or, looking at it the other way: you are claiming prices "should" have been higher before 2014 already, so there must be another cause for them being higher at that time, unrelated to the basic model difference. What is it? Since I quoted some key factors and you didn't respond to them, it is tough for me to come to any other conclusion but that you are guessing or wanting to focus on the US regardless of if the factors are US-specific.
Look, I do see the logic for the rise in 2014: With fewer people insured before 2014, the base of insurance payers is smaller, so the cost per person is higher, but if fewer people are receiving care then the cost overall could be lower (note: no data was provided to substantiate any of this). So increasing the base of the insured should reduce the per insured cost even if it increases the total cost. That's all nice, but it doesn't explain why the US's drug costs were already so much higher than Europe's before 2014: Something else must have caused that discrepancy.
Either way, this shows the basic EU/European model difference isn't the cause of the "problem" of the US having higher prices.
Please note: this contradiction isn't a trivial thing and it isn't unique to you: the big change made in 2014 was sold largely on the basis that moving toward a more European model would decrease costs. Clearly this claim was false and your thesis(the common thesis for this issue) is false. And I don't really know where to go from here because of this contradiction. You'll need to resolve it for me if you want to keep forwarding the thesis.